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RBI Recruitment 2017 – Apply Online for 623 Assistant Posts

bssuperadmin — Thu, 19 Oct 2017 05:59:28 +0000

The Reserve Bank of India invites applications from eligible candidates for 623 posts of “Assistant” in various offices of the Bank. Selection for the post will be through a country-wide competitive examination in two phases i.e. Preliminary and Main examination followed by a Language Proficiency Test (LPT). ….

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জীবনে সময়ানুবর্তিতার মূল্য

administrator — Fri, 13 Oct 2017 04:59:33 +0000

জীবনে সময়ানুবর্তিতার মূল্য

ভূমিকা:- ‘সময় চলিয়া যায় / নদীর স্রোতের প্রায়’ – সময় কারোর জন্য থেমে থাকে না অথচ মানুষের জীবন সীমিত পরিসরের গন্ডিতে বাঁধা । নানা স্বপ্ন, আশা-প্রত্যাশার নানা কল্পনা

নিয়েই মানুষ বাঁচে । তাঁর স্বপ্নকে বাস্তবায়িত করতে জীবনে নির্দিষ্ট সময় প্রয়োজন । কিন্তু সময় কারোর জন্য অপেক্ষা করে না । তাই মানুষের জীবনে সময়ানুবর্তিতার একটি বিশেষ গুরুত্ব রয়েছে ।

সময়ের অপচয়:- সময় বড়ই মূল্যবান । তাকে অবহেলা, উপেক্ষা, অপচয় করলে তার মূল্য মানুষকে দিতেই হয় । কথায় বলে সময় থাকতে কিছু না করলে জীবনে অনিবার্য্য ভাবেই নেমে আসে দুঃখের অমানিকা । আলস্য, কর্মবিমুখ, উদাসীন ভাবে কাটালে জীবনে কখনই সফলতা আসে না । আর যদি সময়কে যথোচিত ভাবে মূল্য দিয়ে ব্যবহার করা যায় তাহলে জীবনে সাফল্য আসবে, জীবন সার্থক হবে ।

জীবনে সময় নিষ্ঠার মূল্য :- মানবজীবনের ভবিষ্যৎ সফলতার প্রথম সোপান হল সময়ের সদ্ ব্যবহার । উন্নতকামী মানুষ সময়কে ঠিকমতো কাজে লাগিয়ে আত্মপ্রতিষ্ঠার পিরামিড গড়ে তোলে । পৃথিবীতে যারা মৃত্যুজ্ঞয়ী, যারা মরেও মরে না, তাঁরা সময়ের নিগড়ে নিজেদের জীবনবীনাকে বেঁধেই চলেছিলেন । নিজেদের ব্যক্তিগত সুখস্বাচ্ছন্দের উপর বেশি নজর না দিয়ে সমাজের মঙ্গলের কথা, উন্নতির কথা ভেবেই তাঁরা অনলস ভাবে কাজ করে গেছেন । কঠোর সাধনা করেছেন । জীবনে সময়নিষ্ঠার প্রয়োজন সব থেকে বেশি ।

ছাত্রজীবন ও সময়াণুবর্তিতা :- মানুষের চরিত্র গঠন ও ভবিষ্যৎ নির্ধারণের প্রকৃষ্ট সময় হল ছাত্রজীবন । ছাত্রজীবনের মূলমন্ত্র হল, অধ্যয়নং তপঃ । পড়াশুনা করা তপস্যারই সামিল । সঠিক বিদ্যার্জন সাধনাসাপেক্ষ । সাধনার দ্বারাই তা অর্জন করতে হয় । তার জন্য সময়নিষ্ঠ হওয়া একান্ত প্রয়োজন । সময়ের নিগড়ে নিজের জীবনকে বেঁধে চলতে পারলে জীবনে সাফল্য আসবেই । তার প্রকৃষ্ট উদাহরণ আমাদের চোখের সামনে রয়েছে । আমাদের দেশের মহাপুরুষদের জীবনীতে সে পরিচয় আমরা পাই । প্রকৃত চরিত্রের অধিকারী না হলে প্রকৃত মানুষ হওয়া সম্ভব নয় । তাই ছাত্রজীবন থেকেই সেই সাধনা আমাদের করতে হবে । প্রকৃত বিদ্যানুশীলনের মাধ্যমে প্রকৃত জ্ঞানার্জন এবং মৌলিক চিন্তা শক্তির উদ্ভাবন সম্ভব । তাই ছাত্রজীবনে সময়ানুবর্তিতা সব থেকে গুরুত্বপূর্ণ ।

উপসংহার :- সময়ানুবর্তিতাই একটা সফল মানুষের মূল চাবিকাঠি । জীবনের স্বপ্নকে সার্থক ও সুন্দর করতে হলে সময়কে ঠিক ঠিক ভাবে ব্যবহার করতে হবে । সময়ের মূল্যবোধ একটা দেশ ও জাতিকে উন্নতির শিখরে পৌঁছে দিতে পারে । শৈশব থেকেই এই সময়ের ব্যবহারের মূল্যবোধ গড়ে তুলতে হবে । কারণ আমাদের মনে রাখতে হবে জীবনের মূল্য আয়ুতে নয়, কল্যাণপুত কর্মে । সময় নিষ্ঠা সেই কল্যাণ পুত কর্মের পথ প্রশস্ত করে । আমাদের মনে রাখতে হবে যে, আমরা যেন সময়ের দাস হয়ে না পড়ি, সময়কেই আমাদের দাস হতে হবে ।

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জীবনে সময়ানুবর্তিতার মূল্য

বাংলা রচনা

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WB Class X

পরিবেশ দূষণ ও তার প্রতিকার

administrator — Fri, 13 Oct 2017 01:58:29 +0000

পরিবেশ দূষণ ও তার প্রতিকার

ভূমিকা:- আকাশ, বাতাস, জল, উদ্ভিদজগত, প্রাণীজগত সবকিছু নিয়ে আমাদের পরিবেশ । এগুলির কোনোটিকে বাদ দিয়ে আমরা বাঁচতে পারি না । মানুষ তার বিদ্যা, বুদ্ধি দিয়ে এবং অনলস পরিশ্রমে তার চারপাশের পরিবেশকে আরও সুন্দর করে সাজিয়েছে । প্রাকৃতিক পরিবেশ থেকে বেশি মণিমানিক্য সংগ্রহ করে মানুষ উষর মরুভূমির বুকেও ফুটিয়েছে সোনালী ফসল । কিন্তু সভ্যতার অগ্রগতির সঙ্গে সঙ্গে আর স্বার্থান্বেষী কিছু মানুষের লোভে প্রাকৃতিক পরিবেশ আজ নানান ভাবে দূষিত হচ্ছে । যেমন বায়ু, জল, মাটি, শব্দ প্রভৃতি দুষণের ফলে মানুষের জীবনেও এসেছে নানা রকম দুরারোগ্য ব্যাধি ।

বায়ুদুষণ ও মানবজীবনে তার প্রভাব:- আমাদের প্রাকৃতিক পরিবেশের অন্যতম ও প্রধান হলো বায়ু বা বাতাস যা ছাড়া প্রাণীজগত এক মুহূর্ত ও বাঁচতে পারে না । বায়ুদুষণের অন্যতম কারণ হল নিউক্লীয় আবর্জনা, কয়লা পুড়িয়ে কার্বন-ডাই অক্সাইড বাতাসে ছড়িয়ে দেওয়া, কলকারখানার দূষিত গ্যাস, যানবাহনের জ্বালানি পোড়া গন্ধ বাতাসে মিশে বাতাস দূষিত হচ্ছে । দুষণের ফলে মানুষের শ্বাসকষ্ট, ক্যান্সারের মতো দুরারোগ্য ব্যাধির শিকার হতে হচ্ছে ।

জলদুষণ ও তার প্রতিক্রিয়া :- জলের আর এক নাম জীবন । জল ছাড়া কোনো জীব বাঁচে না । অথচ সভ্যতার অগ্রগতির সঙ্গে সঙ্গে কলকারখানার সংখ্যা বেড়ে চলেছে প্রতিনিয়ত । সেই কলকারখানা থেকে নির্গত রাসায়নিক পদার্থমিশ্রিত জল নদীর জলে মিশে নদীর জলকে দূষিত করছে । এছাড়া শহরের সমস্ত নর্দমার জল ও নদীতে পড়ে নদীর জলকে দূষিত করছে । ফলে জলবাহিত রোগের সংখ্যা দিন দিন বৃদ্ধি পাচ্ছে । জলবাহিত রোগে আজ মানুষ বড় বিপন্ন ।

শব্দদুষণ ও তার প্রতিক্রিয়া :- কলকারখানার উচ্চশব্দ, যন্ত্রচালিত গাড়ির হর্ন, বাজি-পটকার শব্দ মাইক্রোফোনের আওয়াজে মানুষের শ্রবণক্ষমতা হ্রাস পাচ্ছে । মানসিক বিপর্যয়, রক্তচাপ বৃদ্ধি, স্নায়বিক অস্থিরতা প্রভৃতি নানা রকমের সমস্যা সৃষ্টি করছে ।

মাটিদূষণ :- বর্তমানে কৃষিক্ষেত্রে সবুজবিপ্লব এসেছে । কিন্তু উৎপাদন বৃদ্ধি করতে গিয়ে জমিতে নানা প্রকারের রাসায়নিক সার ও কীটনাশক ব্যবহার করা হচ্ছে, এর ফলে মাটি দূষিত হচ্ছে । সারা বছর জমিতে সেচব্যবস্থা নিশ্চিত করার জন্য বহু নদীতে বাঁধ দিয়ে নদীর গতিকে থামিয়ে দেওয়া হয়েছে, এতে একদিকে যেমন নদীর জল দূষিত হচ্ছে অপরদিকে মৃত্তিকা দূষণ ও হচ্ছে । রাসায়নিক সার দ্বারা প্রস্তুত কৃষিজাত সামগ্রী থেকে নানা ধরণের রোগ সৃষ্টি হচ্ছে ।

পরিবেশ দুষণের প্রতিকার :- পরিবেশ দূষণ আজ সারা পৃথিবীর একটি বিরাট সমস্যা । এই সমস্যা সমাধানের জন্য আমাদের কিছু ব্যবস্থা নিতে হবে । সব রকম দূষণ থেকে আমাদের মুক্তি দিতে পারে একমাত্র উদ্ভিদ । সবুজ উদ্ভিদ বা গাছ সালোকসংশ্লেষ প্রক্রিয়ার মাধ্যমে নিজের খাদ্য নিজে প্রস্তুত করতে পারে । এই প্রক্রিয়ায় গাছ বাতাস থেকে কার্বন-ডাই অক্সাইড গ্রহণ করে আর বাতাসে অক্সিজেন ছেড়ে দেয় । যে অক্সিজেন প্রাণীজগতের বাঁচার জন্য অপরিহার্য্য । তাই বেশি করে গাছ লাগাতে হবে এবং সংরক্ষণ করতে হবে । তাহলে বাতাসে কার্বন-ডাই অক্সাইডের ভারসাম্য বজায় থাকবে । কলকারখানা থেকে দূষণ নিয়ন্ত্রণ করার জন্য নিয়ন্ত্রক যন্ত্রের ব্যবস্থা গ্রহণ, যথা কলকারখানার বা নর্দমার তরল যাতে নদীর জলে না মেশে সে ব্যাপারে ব্যবস্থা গ্রহণ করতে হবে । শব্দদূষণ কমানোর জন্য শব্দ নিরোধক যন্ত্রের ব্যবহারের উপর জোর দিতে হবে । রাসায়নিক সারের পরিবর্তে জৈব সারের প্রয়োগ বেশি করে এবং কীটনাশকের পরিমাণ কমিয়ে মৃত্তিকা দূষণ রোধ সম্ভব । সর্বোপরি যানবাহনে পেট্রল বা ডিজেল পোড়ানোর পরিবর্তে ব্যাটারি চালিত গাড়ির ব্যবহার করতে পারলে দূষণ থেকে রক্ষা পাওয়া যাবে ।

উপসংহার :- পরিবেশ দূষণ একটা গুরুতর সমস্যা । আজ মানব সভ্যতার অস্তিত্ব বিঘ্নিত । এই গভীর সংকটের মোকাবিলা করার জন্য আমাদের প্রত্যেকেই সচেতন হতে হবে এবং নজর দিতে হবে যাতে পরিবেশের দুষণের মাত্রা না বাড়ে । কারণ বিজ্ঞান যতই উন্নত হোক বা প্রযুক্তিবিজ্ঞান যতই আমাদের উন্নতির শীর্ষে নিয়ে যাক না কেন মানুষের জন্যে সভ্যতা মানুষের হাতেই যদি বিনাশ হয় তাহলে কি লাভ - কারণ বনে আগুন লাগলে দেবালয় কি এড়ায় ? এই সমস্যা থেকে উত্তরণের জন্যে আমাদের সবাইকেই হাত মিলিয়ে কোমর বেঁধে নেমে পড়তে হবে ।

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Book-page

Madhyamik

পরিবেশ দূষণ ও তার প্রতিকার

বাংলা রচনা

Bengali

WB Class X

দৈনন্দিন জীবনে বিজ্ঞান / বিজ্ঞান ও মানব সভ্যতা

administrator — Thu, 12 Oct 2017 13:41:34 +0000

দৈনন্দিন জীবনে বিজ্ঞান / বিজ্ঞান ও মানব সভ্যতা

ভূমিকা:- বর্তমান যুগ বিজ্ঞানের যুগ । বিজ্ঞানের নব নব আবিষ্কার মানুষের জীবনধারাকে আমূল পাল্টে দিয়েছে । মানুষের ব্যবহারিক জীবনে এসেছে যুগান্তকারী পরিবর্তন । প্রাকৃতিক দুর্যোগের হাত থেকে বাঁচার জন্য মানুষ আর মন্দিরে গিয়ে মাথা ঠোকে না বা অপদেবতার হাত থেকে মুক্তির জন্য ওঝার কাছে ছোটে না । অন্ধকার থেকে আলোয় ফিরিয়েছে বিজ্ঞান । বিজ্ঞানীদের অনলস সাধনায় আজ আমরা সভ্যতার শীর্ষে উন্নীত হতে পেরেছি ।

দৈনন্দিন জীবনে বিজ্ঞান:- আধুনিক জীবনের চরম উৎকর্ষের এবং অফুরন্ত ঐশ্বর্যের মূলে রয়েছে বিজ্ঞান । সকালের ঘুম ভাঙ্গে এলার্ম ঘড়ির ক্রিং ক্রিং শব্দে, বিছানা ছাড়ার পর যে টুথব্রাশ ও পেষ্ট নিই সেটাও বিজ্ঞানের অবদান । রান্নাঘরের গ্যাস ওভেন, ইলেকট্রিক কেটলি থেকে শুরু করে নিত্যপ্রয়োজনের প্রতিটি সাজ সরঞ্জাম সবই বিজ্ঞানের অবদান । এছাড়া বিনোদনের সামগ্রী রেডিও, টেলিভিশন, খবরের কাগজ, টেলিফোন থেকে শুরু করে টেপরেকর্ডার, ক্যালকুলেটর, সবই বিজ্ঞান দিয়েছে । নানা রকমের আধুনিক যানবাহনের আবিষ্কারের ফলে আমাদের জীবন যাত্রায় এসেছে গতি । দ্রুতগামী বাস, মোটর, ট্রেন, এরোপ্লেন, সবই বিজ্ঞানের অবদান । আজকের কর্মব্যস্ত মানুষ বিজ্ঞান ছাড়া একপাও এগোতে পারে না ।

প্রযুক্তিবিজ্ঞান ও মানব জীবনের অগ্রগতি:- প্রযুক্তিবিজ্ঞানের সাহায্যে কৃষিক্ষেত্রে সবুজ বিপ্লব এসেছে । আজকের ভারত খাদ্য উৎপাদনে স্বয়ংসম্পূর্ণ । চিকিৎসায় এসেছে অভূতপূর্ব সাফল্য । দুরারোগ্য কঠিন ব্যাধির চিকিৎসা করে নিরাময় করা হচ্ছে নিত্য নতুন বৈজ্ঞানিক যন্ত্রপাতির সাহায্যে । প্রযুক্তিবিজ্ঞানের আবিষ্কার আমাদের রোজকার জীবনযাত্রায় এনেছে অভূতপূর্ব সাফল্য । আধুনিক প্রযুক্তিতে তৈরী মোবাইলের সাহায্যে পথ চলতে চলতেও প্রয়োজনীয় অনেক কাজ করে ফেলা যাচ্ছে । প্রচন্ড গরমেও এসি ঘরে বসে অনেক কঠিন কাজ করে ফেলা সম্ভব হচ্ছে । মোট কথা বিজ্ঞান আমাদের জীবনে যেমন আরাম এনে দিয়েছে তেমনি জীবনের চলার পথকেও অনেক সহজ ও গতিময় করেছে ।

বিজ্ঞানের অপকারিতা:- বর্তমান জগতের মানুষ বিজ্ঞান নির্ভর । বৈজ্ঞানিক যন্ত্রপাতি ব্যবহার করতে করতে মানুষ নিজেও অনেক যান্ত্রিক হয়ে পড়েছে । নিজের স্বাভাবিকত্ব হারিয়ে ফেলেছে । বৈজ্ঞানিক যন্ত্রপাতি মানুষের জীবনে যেমন আয়াস ও বিলাসিতা এনে দিয়েছে তেমনি অপর দিকে চাহিদাও বাড়িয়ে দিয়েছে । কিন্তু দরিদ্র মানুষের তো সব চাহিদা পূরণ হয় না । তাই অনেকেই অসুখী ও অসহিষ্ণু হয়ে উঠেছে । কৃত্রিম হয়ে পড়েছে মানুষের জীবন ।

উপসংহার:- অসুখী বা অসহিষ্ণুতা নিজেদের অজ্ঞতা থেকে জন্ম নেয় । এগুলো বাদ দিলে বিজ্ঞান আমাদের পরম বন্ধুর মতো । একে বাদ দিয়ে মানব সভ্যতা অচল । প্রযুক্তিবিজ্ঞানকে আরো বেশি করে কাজে লাগিয়ে তার সুফল প্রত্যেক মানুষের কাছে পৌঁছে দিতে হবে । তবেই একটা দেশ স্বয়ং সম্পূর্ণ হয়ে উঠবে । বিজ্ঞান সত্য নির্ভর জ্ঞান । এই জ্ঞানই পারে সমস্ত কুসংস্কার বা অন্ধবিশ্বাসকে দূরে সরিয়ে দিতে । আর সেই অজ্ঞতার অচলায়তন যেদিন ভারতের বুক থেকে সরে যাবে সেদিন হবে নির্মল ভারত ।

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Book-page

Madhyamik

দৈনন্দিন জীবনে বিজ্ঞান

বিজ্ঞান ও মানব সভ্যতা

বাংলা রচনা

Bengali

WB Class X

MCQ on General Mental Ability for WBCS/SSC/Misc Competetive Exams/etc - II

administrator — Thu, 03 Aug 2017 17:01:46 +0000

MCQ on General Mental Ability for WBCS/SSC/Misc Competetive Exams/etc (150 Questions)

1. Select a pair of words which are not related as other pairs.

(a) School : students (b) Hospital : patients (c) Tree : branches (d) Industries : workers

[Tree : Branch bear whole and part relationship. In other cases organisation and its beneficiary relationship exists]

2. Select a pair of words which are not related as other pairs.

(a) Poet : poem (b) Architect : design (c) Advocate : client (d) Novelist : story

[Advocate : Client is differently related. In other cases creator and creation relationship exists]

3. Select a pair of words which are not related as other pairs.

(a) Continent : countries (b) Desert : camels (c) Parliament : members (d) House : rooms

[Desert : Camels have ecological relationship. In other cases whole and part relationship. Collection of legislators taken as a whole may be considered the Parliament]

4. Select a pair of words which are not related as other pairs.

(a) Planet : Jupiter (b) Vehicle : Truck (c) Desert : Sahara (d) Universe : Sun

[Universe : Sun are single and single in the world. In other cases whole and part. Jupiter is one of the planets]

5. Select a pair of words which are not related as other pairs.

(a) Pen : plastic (b) paper : wood (c) Ink : liquid (d) Brick : soil

[Ink : liquid shows properties. In other cases product and orincipal raw material relationship exists]

6. Select a pair of words which are not related as other pairs.

(a) Bureaucrats : Examination (b) Governors : selection

[Animals : extinction is an ecological problem. In other cases the process of appointment has been shown]

7. Select a pair of words which are not related as other pairs.

(a) Cloudy : rain (b) knowledge : ignorance (c) right : left (d) minor : major

[Cloudy : rain is not opposite relation. In other cases an Antonym has been shown. Here right means right ward direction]

8. Select a pair of words which are not related as other pairs.

(a) Coal : mine (b) fruit : tree (c) milk : animal (d) rice : shop

[Rice : shop is differently related in relation to availability. In other cases product and source relationship has been shown]

9. Select a pair of words which are not related as other pairs.

(a) Knife : sword (b) rifle : gun (c) Cottage : palace (d) Axe : saw

[Axe : Saw are of different type. In other cases small and big shaped equipments of similar things have been shown]

10. Select a pair of words which are not related as other pairs.

(a) Mad : sane (b) Bless : curse (c) True : real (d) Useful : useless

[True : Real are Synonyms. In other cases Antonym relationship]

11. Find out the dissimilar one from the group.

(a) Scholar (b) educated (c) literate (d) illiterate

[Illiterates have no knowledge about alphabets. Others have]

12. Find out the dissimilar one from the group.

(a) Statesman (b) Frontline (c) pioneer (d) Telegraph

[Frontline is a periodical. Others are daily newspapers]

13. Find out the dissimilar one from the group.

(a) Children (b) Infants (c) babies (d) adolescents

[Adolescents means nearing youthhood. Others are of lender age]

14. Find out the dissimilar one from the group.

(a) Advantage (b) opportunity (c) benefit (d) acknowledge

[Acknowledge means ‘to recognize’. Others are synonymous]

15. Find out the dissimilar one from the group.

(a) Tom (b) Dick (c) Harry (d) Thomas

[Thomas is an outsider. The phrase ‘Tom, Dick and Harry’ means common men or ordinary people of a society]

16. Find out the dissimilar one from the group.

(a) Insects (b) frogs (c) mosquitoes (d) butterflies

[Insects is a broad class. Others are smaller groups]

17. Find out the dissimilar one from the group.

(a) Fooding (b) clothing (c) housing (d) travelling

[Travelling is not basic necessaries. Others are basic needs for human being to maintain living]

18. Find out the dissimilar one from the group.

(a) SAPTA (b) NAFTA (c) ASEAN (d) GATT

[GATT is for International Trade matters. Others are for regional trading. GATT = General Agreement on Tariffs & Trade. SAPTA = South Asian Preferential Trade Agreement among SAARC Countries. SAARC = South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation. Members: India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Nepal, Bhutan, Sri Lanka, Maldives. NAFTA = North American Free Trade Area : Members : USA, Canada, Mexico. ASEAN = Association of South East Asian Nations]

19. Find out the dissimilar one from the group.

(a) U G C (b) U P S C (c) S S C (d) P S C

[UGC = University Grants Commission is for the development and finance of University Education in India. Others are for the appointment of Government Servants]

20. Find out the dissimilar one from the group.

(a) Korea (b) Vietnam (c) Thailand (d) Japan

[Korea is not the name of country. Now there are North Korea and South Korea. Others are Countries]

21. Select the pairs of words which have got the similar relationship as in existence between the words written in Capital Letters.

PICTURE : FRAME

(a) Book : cover (b) Building : brick (c) Cistern : Water (d) Chair : furniture

[Book is kept bounded in cover in the way a picture is kept bounded in frame. Others convey different relationship]

22. Select the pairs of words which have got the similar relationship as in existence between the words written in Capital Letters.

GIRL : WOMAN

(a) Adult : major (b) Infant : child (c) Student : teacher (d) Water : ice

[Former stage of a woman is girl. In the same way former stage of a child is infant]

23. Select the pairs of words which have got the similar relationship as in existence between the words written in Capital Letters.

SQUARE : RHOMBUS

(a) Angle : triangle (b) Curve : circle (c) Rectangle : Parallelogram (d) Point : line

[Square : rhombus and rectangle : Parallelogram - both pairs bear the properties of parallel lines]

24. Select the pairs of words which have got the similar relationship as in existence between the words written in Capital Letters.

PEOPLE : PARENTAGE

(a) Product : quality (b) goods : origin (c) Percentage : profit (d) Parody : author

[People : parentage shows the race source. Similarly origin of goods shows the manufacturing source, e.g. Cement : Konark]

25. Select the pairs of words which have got the similar relationship as in existence between the words written in Capital Letters.

PARLOUR : TALKING

(a) Kitchen : cooking (b) Hall : viewing (c) Road : running (d) Field : walking

[Parlour or drawing room is a place of talking. Similarly kitchen is the place for cooking. Others not definite]

26. Select the pairs of words which have got the similar relationship as in existence between the words written in Capital Letters.

ESSAY : PARAGRAPH

(a) Sentence : story (b) History : persons (c) Book : chapter (d) Press : letters

[An Essay generally has got several paragraphs. Similarly A book is generally composed of several chapters]

27. Select the pairs of words which have got the similar relationship as in existence between the words written in Capital Letters.

SEDATIVE : MEDICINE

(a) Mango : fruit (b) Pillow : bed (c) Property : building (d) Paper : book

[Sedative i.e. type of medicine which reduce pain is a kind of medicine. Similarly Mango is a kind of fruit]

28. Select the pairs of words which have got the similar relationship as in existence between the words written in Capital Letters.

SEGMENT : WHOEL

(a) People : mob (b) cow : cattle (c) Army : battle (d) flute : orchestra

[Cow is a part of cattle. Similarly segment is a part of Whole. A group of agitated people may be considered a ‘mob’]

29. Select the pairs of words which have got the similar relationship as in existence between the words written in Capital Letters.

YANKEE : AMERICA

(a) Hindu : India (b) Dutch : Holland (c) Slav : Russia (d) Islam : Arabia

[The people of America i.e. USA are known as Yankee. Similarly people of Holland or Netherlands are called Dutch]

30. Select the pairs of words which have got the similar relationship as in existence between the words written in Capital Letters.

WHITE : BLACK

(a) Yellow : green (b) Pious : devil (c) Student : teacher (d) Universe : earth

[Black is the antonym of white. Similarly Devil i.e. bad person is the antonym of pious i.e. good person]

31. Select suitable number to be placed in the blank space on the basis of principle of selection of number in other similar two.

8 12 28

10 8 21

14 11 ?

(a) 29 (b) 31 (c) 33 (d) 36

[Half of 1st Column + double of 2nd column=3rd column number. As 4+24=28, 5+16=21. Similarly 7+22=29]

32. Select suitable number to be placed in the blank space on the basis of principle of selection of number in other similar two.

4 28 6

3 25 8

5 ? 7

(a) 36 (b) 39 (c) 42 (d) 49

[Square of 1st column + double of 3rd Col. 16+12=28, 9+16=25. Similarly 25+14 = 39]

33. Select suitable number to be placed in the blank space on the basis of principle of selection of number in other similar two.

23 4 5

28 5 6

? 7 8

(a) 32 (b) 34 (c) 36 (d) 38

[Double of 2nd Col. + triple of 3rd Col. 8+15=23, 10+18=28. Similarly (7x2)+(8x3)=14+24=38]

34. Select suitable number to be placed in the blank space on the basis of principle of selection of number in other similar two.

16 25 9

36 64 14

49 81 ?

(a) 15 (b) 16 (c) 17 (d) 18

[Sum of sq. root of 1st & 2nd Col. 4+5=9 , 6+8=14, 7+9= 16]

35. Select suitable number to be placed in the blank space on the basis of principle of selection of number in other similar two.

21 12 81

14 22 64

12 24 ?

(a) 100 (b) 124 (c) 132 (d) 144

[Square of subtracted number. (21-12)² =9²=81, (22 -14)² =8²=64, (24-12)²= (12)²=144]

36. Select suitable number to be placed in the blank space on the basis of principle of selection of number in other similar two.

8 16 6

12 14 4

10 9 ?

(a) 9 (b) 11 (c) 13 (d) 15

[Sum of each horizontal line is 30]

37. Select suitable number to be placed in the blank space on the basis of principle of selection of number in other similar two.

15 20 25

30 35 40

35 ? 15

(a) 40 (b) 30 (c) 25 (d) 20

[Sum of each vertical line is 80]

38. Select the number to be placed in the blank in order to develop a logical series.

15, 24, 35, ……

(a) 42, 46 (b) 48, 63 (c) 72, 80 (d) 84, 99

[Square of next digit - 1. So 7² -1, 8² -1 = 48, 63]

39. Select the number to be placed in the blank in order to develop a logical series.

3, 9, 27, 4, 16; …….

(a) 48 (b) 56 (c) 64 (d) 72

[A number, its square, its cube. So 4, 4², 4³ = 64]

40. Select the number to be placed in the blank in order to develop a logical series.

13, 18, 28, 33, ……..

(a) 38 (b) 43 (c) 48 (d) None

[First 5, next 10 added. So 33 + 10 = 43 is the next no]

41. Select the number to be placed in the blank in order to develop a logical series.

8, 12, …… , 27.

(a) 14 (b) 16 (c) 18 (d) 20

[Half of previous number added. So 12 + 6 = 18]

42. Select the number to be placed in the blank in order to develop a logical series.

2, 5, 10, 17, ….

(a) 24 (b) 26 (c) 28 (d) 30

[Square of next digit + 1. So 5² +1=26]

43. Select the number to be placed in the blank in order to develop a logical series.

123, 246, ……, 984

(a) 386 (b) 432 (c) 482 (d) 492

[The next number is made double. So 246x2 = 492]

44. Select the number to be placed in the blank in order to develop a logical series.

18, 14, 17, 12, 16, ……

(a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 10 (d) 11

[Two series. In odd places (1,3,5) decreasing by 1. in Even places.(2,4,6) decreasing by 2. So 12 - 2 =10]

45. Select the number to be placed in the blank in order to develop a logical series.

3, 5, 10, 12, 24, 26, ……

(a) 48 (b) 52 (c) 64 (d) None

[Increase by 2, multiplied by 2 in next two steps. So the next after 24 is 24 + 2= 26, then 26x2 = 52]

46. Select the number to be placed in the blank in order to develop a logical series.

12, 21, 14, 41, 16, …….

(a) 41 (b) 53 (c) 61 (d) None

[Numbers of odd places are increased by 2. And the number of even places are made reverse of the preceeding one]

47. Select the number to be placed in the blank in order to develop a logical series.

480, …., 80, 20, 4.

(a) 160 (b) 180 (c) 240 (d) 320

[The number is made ½, ⅓, ¼, 1\5 in successive stages]

48. Which one is necessarily present in democratic election ?

(a) Politicians (b) Candidates (c) Posters (d) Canvassing

[Without candidates no election or voting can be held. Others may be absent]

49. Treatment in hospitals depends mainly upon :

(a) Equipments (b) Nurses (c) Doctors (d) Supervisors

[Others are engaged to assist the doctors in the treatment process. Treatment cannot be done without doctors]

50. A person proceeding towards South in the morning will find the rising Sun towards his :

(a) Left (b) right (c) front (d) None of these

[Consider yourself to proceed towards South. The left hand will remain towards the East where the sun rises]

51. Which one of the following statements is definitely true ?

(a) All cancer patients are smokers (b) All smokers get cancer

(c) Smoking may lead to cancer (d) Smoking always leads to cancer

[There is no definiteness that smoking will always bring cancer. So the word ‘may’ is applicable in this case]

52. If rubber is considered eleastic, then Iron is considered :

(a) heavy (b) thick (c) hard (d) costly

[Hard or rigid or inelastic (as rubber can be expanded but iron can not be expanded through pulling]

53. In the early morning the Sunshine is less hot, because of :

(a) the earth is cooler in the morning

(b) People feel less heat in the early morning

(c) Sun’s rays travel more in slanting direction

(d) Sun has got less fire in the morning.

[In the morning the distance between the Sun and the earth is higher. This distance become reduced in midday or noon]

54. It is not advisable to sleep under a tree at night, because :

(a) The person may be afraid of ghost

(b) Trees release no oxygen during night

(d) Harmful Carbon di-oxide is released by trees during night

[Trees release oxygen in the presence of sunlight during daytime, but during night Carbon-di-oxide is released by the tree. As Carbon-di-oxide is heavier than ordinary air so it is likely to become concentrated at ground level at the bottom of trees. People lying under a tree may face death through inhaling carbondioxide]

55. Consider the Statements : All the farmers are hardworking, and, Haripada is hardworking. Now state which of the following conclusions is correct ?

(a) Haripada is a farmer

(b) Non-farmers are not hardworking

(d) Some hardworking persons are farmers

[People are engaged in various professions of which one is ‘farming’. So some of the hardworking persons are associated with farming. Many hardworking persons may remain associated with various other professions]

56. Cycles are preferred in Indian societies for communication, because of the reason that :

(a) Cycles are produced in the country

(b) Cycles are cheap

(c) Negligible cost is incurred to use cycles

(d) There is no need to have a licence to keep and run a cycle

[Indian people are generally poor, So they prefer cycle as a means of communication for cost effectiveness]

57. Consider the Statements : All the murderers are hanged to death, and, Charles was hanged to death. Now which one of the conclusions can be drawn from the statements ?

(a) Charles was definitely a murderer

(b) Persons convicted in other offences are not hanged to death

(c) Charles could be a murderer

(d) Only murderers are hanged to death

[Charles could be or was probably a murderer can be concluded. All the murderers, if proved, are hanged to death does not mean that persons convicted in other offences do not face it]

58. Consider the following Statement :

Morerji Desai lived nearly 100 years and used to perform Yoga Exercise. Now show which of the following conclusions can be definitely drawn :

(a) Persons practising Yoga Exercise can live nearly 100 years

(b) Yoga Exercise may be considered helpful to live long.

(d) No other exercise is so helpful as Yoga to live long.

[On the basis of the statement we can not conclude definitely that Yoga exercise helped him to live so long]

59. If ‘ENTERPRISE’ is coded as ‘EESNITREPR’ ,the code for ‘FRUSTRATE’ will be :

(a) FERTUSSRT (b) ERTRUASRT (c) EFTRAURST (d) None

[(1st,1st), (2nd, 2nd) and so on from the end and the beginning of the letters of the given word as code]

60. If ‘WASHINGTON’ is coded as ‘VZRGHMFSNM’ then code for ‘HYDERABAD’ will be :

(a) GXCEQZAZC (b) GXCDQZAZC (c) OZEFSNCNE (d) None of these

[Preceding letter as the code for any letter. A=Z, C=B etc]

61. Which one of the following is not similar to others ?

(a) London (b) Islamabad (c) New York (d) Tokyo

[New York is not the capital of a country. Others are capital cities. The capital of USA is Washington D.C.]

62. Select suitable word for the blank in the following sentence.

The Crime was …………… during the last night.

(a) done (b) performed (c) celebrated (d) committed

[Celebrate is used for festival]

63. A meaningful word can be formed using the letters ATENHPLE. The word is the name of an/ a —- ?

(a) Machine (b) Animal (c) Person (d) Place

[Elephant can be formed. So an Animal]

64. Name of a famous person can be written using the letters EEEAASSRPKH ; what is the 2nd letter of the name of the man ?

(a) E (b) A (c) S (d) H

[The name is SHAKESPEARE, the famous writer in English]

65. Find the persons who is of different type from others :

(a) R. Browning (b) P. B. Shelley (c) J. Keats (d) J. B. Shaw

[J.B.Shaw is a dramatist. Others are poets (all in English]

66. Which one is dissimilar from others :

(a) Democracy (b) Monarchy (c) Aristocracy (d) Federal

[‘Federal’ denotes the type of a country having autonomy For associated States or provinces. Others are type of Governmental management. Democracy is a form of Government where citizens have got the constitutional power to form the Government. Monarchy has got King/Queen. Aristocracy is a form of Government where a few selected sophisticated persons enjoy the power to run the Government]

67. If Elephant : Ant, then Palace : ………

(a) building (b) hut (c) house (d) room

[Large and small relationship. Elephant is a large animal whereas ant is a small animal. Similarly Palace is a very big house, whereas hut is very small house]

68. If Music : harmonious, then Noise : ………

(a) people (b) loud (c) discordant (d) ugly

[Discordant which means harsh or having no harmony. In music the sound is systematic. But in noise sound is harsh]

69. Find out the dissimilar one in the group :

(a) Needle (b) Knife (c) Tackle (d) Handle

[Except Knife others have got ‘le’ at the end]

70. Which of the following letters are to be placed in the gaps to develop a meaningful series :

A N C P - R G - I V K - M Z

(a) F T W (b) E T X (c) F S Y (d) F U M

[26 letters have been divided into two equal parts A to M and N to Z. Now 1st, 1st: 3rd-3rd; 5th-5th from both. See below :

A B C D E F G H I J K L M

N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z

71. Which of the letter-groups are to be placed in the blanks to develop a meaningful series :

a a c - b b - d c c - a d - b b

(a) d c d a (b) a d b d (c) c d a d (d) c a d a

[The letters aacc bbdd ccaa ddbb]

72. Which letters may develop a meaningful series :

d c - a c b - d b a - c a - c b

(a) a d c b (b) c a d b (c) b a d d (d) a d b d

[The letters dcba cbad badc adcb]

73. Consider the Statement ‘All Governments are not power hungry’ Now show which one of the following Statements is valid.

(a) All Governments are powerful

(b) Some Governments are not powerful

(c) Some Governments are willing to expand power

(d) No Government is willing to expand power

[Some Governments are always willing to expand power (i.e. power hungry) in different directions]

74. Find out the letters which will not show differently, if reflected on a mirror :

A S H M I O L M V W X Y U Z T

(a) M W Y (b) S L U (c) S L Z (d) L Z T

[Others will be different on a mirror. Take a mirror and observe the changes in Figures on the mirror MWY=YWM]

75. If Ships are tigers, then which one of the following countries has got largest number of tigers (in the group ):

(a) Bangladesh (b) South Africa (c) Nepal (d) Japan

[This country has got largest number of ships, in the group or even in the world. Nepal is a land-rocked country and has probably no ship, or tiger]

76. In which one of the following countries the Sun goes down at the earliest i.e. evening comes earlier than any other.

(a) Saudi Arabia (b) Afghanistan (c) Vietnam (d) Maldives

[Vietnam is at the most eastern side in the group so in this country the sun rises at the earliest and also goes down at the-earliest. (Consult world map and International Date Line)]

77. A Special mark is there on 1, 17, 33, 49, 65 etc. number of pages of a book. These marks are given on the concerned pages for the convenience of the : ……… of books.

(a) Printer (b) Binder (c) Seller (d) buyer

[Generally books are printed in format having 16 pages. So the mark for each format is given for the convenience of the binders]

78. First four letters of ‘Cocksure’ and last four letters of ‘Retail’ taken together mean :

(a) Organ of a bird (b) a delicious drink (c) Confident man (d) None of these

[Cocktail means a mixed alcoholic drink of delicious type]

79. Which one is the same as Calcutta, Bombay, Cochin ?

(a) Delhi (b) Bangalore (c) Madras (d) Patna.

[for having sea port]

80. Which one is the same as Basket, Pan, Pail ?

(a) Utensil (b) Knife (c) Fork (d) Bowl

[being suitable to carry water or various things]

81. Which one is same as Reliability, Dependability, Honesty ?

(a) Hospitality (b) Credibility (c) Quality (d) Quantity

[being of same type of meaning : Synonyms]

82. Which one is same as flood, cyclone, earthquake ?

(a) soil-erosion (b) rain (c) accident (d) damage

[being natural calamities]

83. Which one is the same as Tiger, Deer, Cat ?

(a) Fish (b) Bat (c) Swan (d) Ant

[being mammals : Others are not mammals]

84. Which one of the alternatives expresses most effectively the general characteristics of the given words at the beginning ?

Rice, Wheat, Bailey

(a) Food (b) Cereals (c) crops (d) Agriculture

[ Considered as a broad-group : Food grains]

85. Which one of the alternatives expresses most effectively the general characteristics of the given words at the beginning ?

Bus, Truck, Car

(a) Transport (b) Automobile (c) Wheel (d) None.

[All automatic or self-driven care are automobile]

86. Which one of the alternatives expresses most effectively the general characteristics of the given words at the beginning ?

Gold, Silver, Brass.

(a) Mineral (b) Metal (c) Alloy (d) Chemical

[Brass is not a direct mineral, it is an alloy]

87. Which one of the alternatives expresses most effectively the general characteristics of the given words at the beginning ?

Flute, Guitar, Violin

(a) music (b) Instrument (c) Orchestra (d) None

[Musical instruments ]

88. Which one of the alternatives expresses most effectively the general characteristics of the given words at the beginning ?

Snake, Serpent, lizard

(a) reptile (b) animal (c) insect (d) harmful

[having pressure on body while in movement]

89. A, B, C, D, E are five Bus routes. A is shorter than B but longer than E. C is longest and D is a little shorter than B and a little longer than A. Which one is the shortest route ?

(a) B (b) D (c) E (d) None of these

[Here we notice C > B > D > A > E]

90. At 10-10 A.M. the shortest angular distance of two major hands of a wall clock is :

(a) 95° (b) 115° (c) 135° (d) None of these

[Angular distance for each 12 sections is 360°÷12=30°. From 10 to 2 the distance is 120°. But the angle for the hour hand for 10 minutes after 10 of the clock is 5°. So total angular distance is 120° - 5° =115°]

91. Which letter will be eight to the right of the third letter of the second half of the English Alphabet ?

(a) U (b) V (c) W (d) X

[13 + 3 + 8 = 24th letter = X]

92. Which one of the following is different from others ?

(a) Monday (b) Tuesday (c) Friday (d) None of these.

[Spelling having 7 letters whereas others are of 6 letters]

93. In a particular year if the Republic day of India is observed on Friday. what day was celebrated as the New Year’s day ?

(a) Monday (b) Tuesday (c) Friday (d) None of these

[Republic day is on 26th January = Friday. So 29th January will be Monday. 1st January will be akin to 29th January = Monday]

94. The minimum number of colours required to paint all the sides of a cube so that no two adjacent faces may have the same Colour is :

(a) 6 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 2

[Six sides of which two opposite sides can be painted by the same colour]

95. How many 5’s are there in the following number series which are either preceded by 6 or followed by 7 ?

3124567565724756657

(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four

[Consider the groups either 65 or 57. There are five 5 digits but of these 3rd and 4th are acceptable]

96. If 15 apples and 25 oranges cost as much as 25 apples and 15 oranges. Then :

(a) Cost of an apple equal to the cost of an orange

(b) An Orange is cheaper than an apple

(d) Nothing definite can be concluded on cost of each fruit.

[Notice 40 pieces in each group. So each of equal price]

97. How many numbers from 11 to 60 are there which are exactly divisible by 7 but not by 3 ?

(a) Three (b) Four (c) Five (d) Six

[The numbers divisible by 7 are 14, 21, 28, 35, 42, 49 & 56. But of these 21 and 42 are divisible by 3. So 5 numbers]

98. Which one of the following words can not be written through using the letters contained in the word : CARPENTER

(a) CARPET (b) REPENT (c) PAINTER (d) NECTAR

[ ‘I’ as used in PAINTER is not there in the word CARPENTER]

99. If I = 9 CAN = 18 then INDIA = ?

(a) 35 (b) 36 (c) 37 (d) 38

[ Place of the letters in the alphabet is considered as the number. So I=9, N=14, D=4, I=9, A=1. Sum = 37 ]

100. Which one must be necessarily present in Run-race competition ?

(a) Competitor (b) Judge (c) Spectator (d) Prize.

[ Without competitor no race competition can be held ]

101. My mothers sister’s mother’s son’s son will be my :

(a) Uncle (b) Cousin (c) Nephew (d) None of these

[ Mother’s mother’s son is Uncle, and his son is cousin ]

102. STATEMENT : I : All flowers are beautiful.

II : All beautiful things are lovely.

Conclusions :

(a) All flowers are lovely

(b) Some flowers are lovely

(d) None of these

[As all flowers are beautiful so all flowers are lovely]

103. STATEMENT : I : My roommate is a player.

II : All players are handsome.

Conclusions :

(a) All handsome men are players.

(b) My roommate is handsome.

(d) All players are not handsome.

[If all players are handsome then my roommate who is a player must be a handsome person]

104. STATEMENT : I : Some people are rich.
II : Some people are wise.

Conclusions :

(a) Some wise people are rich.

(b) All people are either wise or rich.

(c) Some people are neither rich nor wise.

(d) None.

[‘Some wise people are rich’ – can not be concluded, because some of the given statements may denote different group of persons]

105. STATEMENT : I : All men are chairs.

II : All chairs are tables.

Conclusions:

(a) All tables are chairs.

(b) Some men are tables.

(c) All men are tables.

(d) Some chairs are tables.

[All men are tables can be concluded as men are chairs and all chairs are tables. Man=Chair=table. So Man=table]

106. Statement : I : Some men are educated.

II : Educated men prefer books.

Conclusions :

(a) Some men prefer books.

(b) Only educated men prefer books.

(d) All men prefer some of the books.

[Some men who are educated prefer bocks can be logical]

107. If + means x, - means + ; and x means ÷ , find the value of

6 + 4 -18 x 3.

(a) 14 (b) 18 (c) 30 (d) None of these.

[ 6 x 4 + 18 ÷ 3 = 24 + 6=30]

108. If 2x8=4; 3x15=5; 4x24=6 , then 5x40 = ?

(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 20 (d) 200

[The Second number has been divided by the 1st number. So 5x40=8]

109. A solid wooden cube having each side 4 inches is painted on all sides and cut into cube pieces each having one side as 1 inch. How many of these pieces will have no colour even on a single side ?

(a) 8 (b) 12 (c) 16 (d) 24

[Total volume 4x4x4=64 cubic inches. Each small cube is of 1x1x1= 1 cinch. Of these pieces 56 pieces will have paint on one or some sides. So 8 pieces will be there without colour]

110. A person going towards South in the morning will find the Sun towards his right hand side.

(a) Always (b) Often (c) Sometimes (d) Never

[To a persons going towards South the Eastern side will be at his left. So the Sun will never become visible towards his right side]

111. Widows of India are found to remarry :

(a) always (b) often (c) sometimes (d) never

[Sometimes (i.e. few and far between) is the appropriate in this case]

112. Parks are essential in big cities for :

(a) future expansion (b) Green landscape

[Parks provide fresh air for lots of people in city areas]

113. Banking institutions require collateral security against loan for :

(a) attachment of security (b) balancing assets and liabilities

(c) compulsion to pay-off loan (d) Recovery of interest

[Banks want the refund of loan along with interest through having the loan tied against collateral security of property]

114. What is common among milk, cotton, lime, flour and teeth.

(a) Softness (b) hardness (c) whiteness (d) none of these

[All the things have got common colour ‘White’]

115. What is to be placed in the gap :

Extravagant : Lavish : : Disloyal :: ——

(a) faithful (b) careful (c) Treacherous (d) Loyal

[Synonym relationship]

116. A Gun is fired at a distance where both sound and light are produced. Which will be the outcome :

(a) Sound and light are to reach you at the same moment.

(b) Sound will be heard at first

(c) Light will be seen at first

(d) None of these.

[light moves faster than sound]

117. How many times from 12 Noon to 2 P.M. the hour and minute hands of a wall clock will cross each other.

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) None of these

[From 12 to 1 no crossing and from 1 to 2 p.m. a single crossing within 6 minutes of the start]

118. A train crosses 16 Electric posts situated at a distance of 150 metres each in one minute. The speed of the train per hour is :

(a) 72 (b) 96 (c) 120 (d) None of these

[15 gaps so distance covered 150 x 15 = 2250 metre = 2.25 km. So speed 2.25 x 60 = 135 km. per hour]

119. A group of 5 persons can walk a distance in 5 days. A person is capable to walk the distance in :

(a) 1 day (b) 5 days (c) 25 days (d) None of these

[Days required will be the same irrespective of persons travelling on foot]

120. Find out the odd man in the group :

(a) French Open (b) Wimbledon (c) U.S. Open (d) Wills Cup.

[Wills Cup is for Cricket. Others are for Tennis]

121. A man travels 14 Km towards West, then 3 km towards south and then 10 km. towards east. How far he is from the starting point ? :

(a) 1 km (b) 5 km (c) 7 km (d) None of these.

[Here H² (Hypotenuse) = √(4² + 3²) = √(16 + 9) = √25 = 5 km]

122. Find out one which is different from others :

(a) Orissa (b) karnataka (c) Kerala (d) Andhra Pradesh.

[except karnataka other states are having coastal area]

123. Which one is different :

(a) Cow (b) horse (c) man (d) cock.

[except Cow others are of Male groups]

124. If ‘Tree’ is related to ‘Root’, then ‘Smoke’ is related to :

(a) Chimney (b) Heat (c) Fire (d) Coal

[A tree has origin in root. Likewise smoke has origin in fire]

125. ‘Walk’ is related to ‘Run’, in the same way ‘Breeze’ is related to :

(a) Air (b) Wind (c) Wave (d) Fast.

[Quick walking is Run. So quick or forceful breeze is wind]

126. ‘Book is related to ‘Author’, in the same way ‘Food’ is related to :

(a) Hotel (b) Vegetable (c) cook (d) Fire

[Books are written or prepared by Authors. In the same way Food is prepared by Cook]

127. Which one of the following is different from others :

(a) 8 (b) 45 (c) 64 (d) 125

[45 is not a cube number. All others are cube]

128. Find out the next term for the series : 6, 12, 20, 30, 42, …..

(a) 50 (b) 54 (c) 56 (d) 58

[We can have two methods of calculation. The number are increasing by 6,8,10,12,14 etc. Or the numbers are 2²+2, 3²+3, 4²+4, 5²+5, 6²+6, 7²+7=56]

129. Which one of the following letters should be placed in place of the question mark to have a meaningful series :

G, H, J, M, ?, V :

(a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S

[If we notice the letters then we find that there is no gap of letters between the first two G and H. But subsequently there is gap of 1,2,3.4 etc. Letters, So after M there should be gap of 3 letters, Or 4th letter after it which is Q]

130. Find out the wrong number in the series :

36, 54, 18, 27, 22.5, 13.5, 4.5

(a) 18 (b) 27 (c) 22.5 (d) 13.5

[There are two series. In the Odd number places (1,3,5,etc.) and in the Even number places (2,4,6.etc). The numbers of odd places in next step become half of the former one. So, as 18 is there in the 3rd place so for the 5th place the number should be 9]

131. Which sequence of letters are to be placed in the blank spaces one after another, to develop a meaningful series.

a b - a a b b - - b b -

(a) a b b a (b) b a a a (c) b a b a (d) a b a b

[a b b a has been written three times, a b b a a b b a a b b a]

132. If EXAMINATION is coded as XMEANTIANIO, what will be the code for UNDERSTOOD ?

(a) NDURESOTOD (b) DEUNRSTODO (c) NDUERSOOTD (d) None of these

[If we notice closely we find that in the code 2 consonants have been written at first, then 2 vowels have been written, the system has been continued. In case of only one vowel or consonant remaining that has been written]

133. If BREAD is coded as YIVZW, what will be the code for KNIFE ?

(a) PMRUV (b) PQSVW (c) POQTV (d) None of these

[The letters have been changed or interchanged as under :

A B C D E F G H I J K L M

Z Y X W V U T S R Q P O N As I=R , F=U etc]

134. In a certain Code Language :

“pic Vic Nic” means “Winter is cold”;

“Tic Nic Rec” means “Summer is hot”;

“Rec Pic Bic” means “Winter and Summer” , and

“Vic Thic Gik” means “Nights are cold”

Show which one of the codes represents “Summer” ?

(a) Nic (b) Rec (c) Vic (d) Pic

[Common letter is ‘Nic’ from first two which means ‘is”. Common letter from 1st and 3rd is ‘Pic’ which means ‘winter; Common letter from 2nd and 3rd is ‘Rec’ which means ‘summer’. Actually to find out ‘Summer’ we can find out the common code only from 2nd and 3rd premises]

135. A person walks 10 metre in front and next 10 metres to his right. Then every time turning to his left he walks 5, 15 and 15 metres respectively. How far he is now from his starting point ?

(a) 5 metres (b) 10 metres (c) 15 metres (d) None of these

136. How many Square figures can be drawn inside a circle when four corners of the Squares should touch the circumference.

(a) One (b) Two (c) Four (d) None of these.

[Numerous squares can be drawn inside the circle]

137. Factory : Production :: College : ?

(a) Professors (b) Students (c) Education (d) Discipline

138. Disease : Pathology : : Planets : ?

(a) Satellite (b) Astronomy (c) Astrology (d) Universe

139. Stone : hard :: Feather : ?

(a) Bird (b) wings (c) light (d) soft

140. Windows : House :: ? : Animals

(a) Universe (b) Eyes (c) Brain (d) Intelligence

150. Abstract : Concrete :: Simple : ?

(a) Complex (b) Legal (c) Specific (d) Rational.

**************

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WBCS

MCQ on General Mental Ability

WBCS Main Compulsory

MCQ on General Mental Ability for WBCS/SSC/Misc Competetive Exams/etc - I

administrator — Tue, 27 Jun 2017 05:27:31 +0000

MCQ on General Mental Ability for WBCS/SSC/Misc Competetive Exams/etc

1. Wood : opaque : : Glass : ———

(a) Glossy (b) Brittle (c) glittering (d) transparent

2. Walk : run : : Breeze ———

(a) Air (b) wind (c) fast (d) breathe

3. Ancient : modern : : often : ———

(a) always (b) never (c) seldom (d) regular

4. Metre : ——— :: Litre : volume

(a) area (b) length (c) weight (d) density

5. Uganda : Kampala : : ——— : Damascus

(a) Tanzania (b) Sudan (c) Syria (d) Somalia

[A country and its capital relationship. The capital of Tanzania is Dodoma. Sudan : Khartoom. Somalia: Mogadishu]

6. Numismatics : coins : : Philately : ———

(a) stamps (b) medals (c) birds (d) flower

[Study relating to stamps is called Philately]

7. Disease : ——— : : Planet : Astronomy

(a) Astrology (b) Pathology (c) Hydrology (d) Ornithology

[Studies relating to disease is pathology, Astrology is the science relating to heavenly bodies or foretelling events. Hydrology : Water; Ornithology : birds]

8. Light : ——— : : Dusk : Dawn

(a) Sun (b) heavy (c) Morning (d) electricity

9. House : windows : : Man : ———

(a) brain (b) sentiment (c) eyes (d) scenery

[windows and eyes are used to observe outside]

10. Malaria : Mosquito : : ——— : Bacteria

(a) Disease (b) Cholera (c) Plague (d) Medicine.

[Carrier of diseases or germs in human body]

11. Find out one which is dissimilar from others.

(a) New Delhi (b) Calcutta (c) Madras (d) Bombay

[New Delhi is national capital and others are of States capital]

12. Find out one which is dissimilar from others.

(a) abdication (b) resignation (c) renunciation (d) corporation

[Others have got the meaning of ‘to leave’ ]

13. Find out one which is dissimilar from others.

(a) Bangladesh (b) Sri Lanka (c) Nepal (d) Maladives

14. Find out one which is dissimilar from others.

(a) Author (b) Novelist (c) poet (d) publisher

15. Find out one which is dissimilar from others.

(a) Mumbai (b) Kolkata (c) Cochi (d) Kanpur

[Kanpur is an ordinary town, others are port towns]

16. Find out one which is dissimilar from others.

(a) Iron (b) Steel (c) Gold (d) Silver

[Steel is an alloy of several metals, others are metals]

17. Find out one which is dissimilar from others.

(a) liberate (b) pardon (c) release (d) emancipate

[pardon means ‘to forgive’ others mean ‘to set free’ or release]

18. Find out one which is dissimilar from others.

(a) uncle (b) brother (c) nephew (d) son

[Son is directly related, others are related through others]

19. Find out one which is dissimilar from others.

(a) credibility (b) reliability (c) hostility (d) dependability

[hostility means enmity, others are good qualities]

20. Find out one which is dissimilar from others.

(a) flood (b) accident (c) cyclone (d) earthquake

[Others are natural calamities}

21. Find out one group which is differently related.

(a) dogs : bark (b) horses : neigh (c) birds : crimp (d) Lion : trumpet

[The cry of elephant is called trumpet and the cry of Lion is called roar ]

22. Find out one group which is differently related.

(a) king and kin (b) bread and butter (c) pen and pencil (d) heart and soul

[Others are phrase to mean specifically]

23. Find out one group which is differently related.

(a) light : dark (b) day : night (c) sun : moon (d) right : left

[Others are Antonym relationship]

24. Find out one group which is differently related.

(a) College : principal (b) Navy : Commander (c) Army : General (d) Industry : Engineer

[Industry is not managed by engineer, Others are managers]

25. Find out one group which is differently related.

(a) Exercise : health (b) Crime : punishment (c) Judge : order (d) Enterprise : success

[Judge and order do not establish cause and effect relation]

26. Find out one group which is differently related.

(a) Snakes : hiss (b) Bees : hum (c) Horse : bleat (d) lions : roar

[Cry of horse is ‘neigh’, Cry of Sheep, goat and calf is ‘bleat’]

27. Find out one group which is differently related.

(a) Parliament : members (b) Continent : Countries (c) Sentence : words (d) fruit : seeds

[fruit and seed is not the relationship of whole and a part]

28. Find out one group which is differently related.

(a) Mathematics : Geometry (b) Air : Oxygen (c) Steel : Nickel (d) Gold : Silver

[gold does not include silver (in other cases the second one is included in the first e.g. Nickel is in Steel]

29. Find out one group which is differently related.

(a) Tailor : cloth (b) Carpenter : wood (c) publisher : writer (d) Blacksmith : Iron

[the basic raw material for a publisher is paper]

30. Find out one group which is differently related.

(a) Kuchipudi : Andhra Pradesh (b) Bharat Natyam : Bihar (c) Kathakali : Kerela (d) Odissi : Orissa

[Product and origin relation- Bharat Natyam, a dance style originated in Tamil Nadu]

31. Find the number to be placed in the blank.

3, 5, 7, 11, ….. , 17

(a) 13 (b) 14 (c) 15 (d) None of these

[Prime numbers have been placed. Prime numbers are divisible only by 1 and the number itself]

32. Find the number to be placed in the blank.

1, 8, 27, …… ,125

(a) 26 (b) 58 (c) 62 (d) 64

[The cube of next number. 1³=1, 2³=8, 3³=27, 4³=64]

33. Find the number to be placed in the blank.

5, 10, 17, 26, …… ,65

(a) 35 (b) 37 (c) 52 (d) None

[square of next number +1. 2²+1=5, 3²+1=10, 4²+1=17, 5²+l=26, 6²+1=37, 8²+1=65]

34. Find the number to be placed in the blank.,

3, 7, 15, 31, ….. ,127

(a) 57 (b) 63 (c) 83 (d) none.

[double of previous number +1. 31+31+1=63]

35. Find the number to be placed in the blank.

84, 24, 21, …… , 3

(a) 16 (b) 9 (c) 6 (d) None

[the number is reversed and made half in next stage. e.g. 84 : 48÷2 = 24, 24 : 42÷2=21, 21 : 12÷2 = 6, 6 : 6÷2=3]

36. Find the number to be placed in the blank.

31, 25, 20, 16, …..

(a) 14 (b) 13 (c) 12 (d) None

[the number decreases by 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, etc. 16-3=13]

37. Find the number to be placed in the blank.

3, 18, 4, 48, 5, ……

(a) 75 (b) 100 (c) 115 (d) None

[the numbers are to be considered in pairs. Numbers in odd places are increased by 1 in next step. The second one is cube minus square of the former. So 5³-5²=125-25=100]

38. Find the number to be placed in the blank.

8, 8, 10, 12, 12, 16, 14, ….

(a) 18 (b) 20 (c) 22 (d) None

[two series : one for odd number places in which next numbers increases by 2 and another in even number places wherein next number increases by 4 in each step]

39. Find the number to be placed in the blank.

4, 13, 40, 121, ……..

(a) 283 (b) 364 (c) 384 (d) None

[The next number is threefold of the former + 1. 4x3+1 = 13, 13x3+1=40„40x3+1=121, 121x3+1=364]

40. Find the number to be placed in the blank.

7, 26, 63, ……., 215

(a) 124 (b) 135 (c) 157 (d) None

[Cube of 2, 3, 4, 5 etc. minus 1. 2³-1=7, 3³-1=26, 4³-1=63, 5³-1=124, 6³-1=215]

41. Find out the wrong term in the series.

13, 24, 33, 42, 45, 48, 49

(a) 33 (b) 42 (c) 45 (d) 48

[the series increases by 11, 9, 7, 5, 3, 1. So After 33 the next term should be 33+7=40. next 40+5=45, 45+3=48, 48+1=49]

42. Find out the wrong term in the series.

2, 6, 10, 16, 22, 26, 38, 48, 58

(a) 20 (b) 26 (c) 36 (d) 46

[the series increase by 4,4; 6,6; 8,8; 10,10; etc. So after 22 the next term will be 22+8=30. next 30+8=38, next 38+10=48, next 48+10=58]

43. Find out the wrong term in the series.

16, 24, 36, 56, 81

(a) 24 (b) 36 (c) 56 (d) 81

[the next term has been made 1.5 times. So after 36 the required term will be 36 x 1.5=36+18=54]

44. Find out the wrong term in the series.

14, 26, 48, 98, 194, 386

(a) 26 (b) 48 (c) 98 (d) 194

[double minus 2 series. So after 26 the term will be 26x2-2=50. The next will be 50x2-2=98 etc]

45. Find out the wrong term in the series.

18, 19, 22, 26, 34, 43, 54

(a) 26 (b) 34 (c) 43 (d) None

[the term increases by 1,3, 5, 7, 9, 11 etc. So after 22 the next term is 22+5=27. the next 27+7=34 etc]

46. Find out the wrong term in the series.

5, 11, 24, 51, 104, 217, 440

(a) 51 (b) 104 (c) 217 (d) 440

[The term increases on the system of double +1, 2, 3, 4 etc. from previous term. So after 51 the next is 51x2+4=106]

47. Find out the wrong term in the series.

4, 6, 12, 18, 36, 72, 108, 162

(a) 72 (b) 108 (c) 162 (d) None

[the terms are multiplied by 1.5 and 2. So after 36 the next term is 36x1.5=54; the next 54x2=108, next 108x1.5=162]

48. Find out the wrong term in the series.

.5, 2, 4.5, 8, 12.5, 20, 24.5, 32

(a) 8 (b) 20 (c) 32 (d) 18

[Half of square of 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 etc. So in place of 20 the number will be 6²=36÷2=18, 7²=49÷2=24.5, 8²=64÷2=32]

49. Find out the wrong term in the series.

100, 90, 70, 40, 0, -50, -100.

(a) 70 (b) 40 (c) -50 (d) -100

[The term decreases by 10, 20, 30, 40, 50, 60 etc. So after -50 the next term will be (-50-60)= -110].

50. Find out the wrong term in the series.

1, 12, 23, 34, 44, 56, —— .

(a) 34 (b) 56 (c) 89 (d) 44

[11 is added for the next term. So after 34 the next term 34+11 =45]

51. Find the wrong term in the series:

A, C, E, G, J, K, M, O

(a) G (b) J (c) K (d) M

[alternate letters are shown. After G next one is I]

52. Find the wrong term in the series

EDF, JIK, ONP, TRU, YXZ.

(a) JIK (b) ONP (c) TRU (d) YXZ

[The first one EDF is 546 letters. If we bring the mid letter at first we observe DEF IJK NOP etc. So gap of two letters in each next step. So required term is TSU]

53. Find the wrong term in the series

AK, CM, EO, GQ, IS, KV, MW.

(a) CM (b) GQ (c) KV (d) None of these.

[It should be KU. 1-11, 3-13, 5-15, 7-17, 9-19, 11-21 etc. nos. letters]

54. Find the wrong term in the series

AC, ZX, EG, VT, EL, RP. MO, NL

(a) VT (b) EL (c) MO (d) None of these.

[It should be IK. One letter missing. First pair from the beginning and second pair from the end of alphabet]

55. Find the wrong term in the series

ACBD, EGFH, IKJL, MONP, QSTR.

(a) IKJL (b) MNOP (c) QSTR (d) None of these.

[It should be QSRT. 1324]

56. Find the wrong term in the series

A, B, D, H, O, F.

(a) D (b) H (c) O (d) F

[1, 1+1=2nd, 2+2=4th, 4+4=8th, 8+8=16th and 32nd letter. A is also considered as the 27th letter. 16th letter is P not O]

57. Find the wrong term in the series

CF1L, EGKN, GIMP, ILOR, KNQT.

(a) EGKN (b) GJMP (c) ILOR (d) None of these

[it should be EHKN : 3, 6, 9, 12; 5, 8, 11, 14 : etc. gap of 2 letters for the next term]

58. Find the wrong term in the series

DfWu, EgVt, FhUs, GiTr, HjSq, IlQn.

(a) FhUs (b) GiTr (e) IlQn (d) None of these

[It should be IkRp. Two from the beginning and two from the end for the each group]

59. Find the wrong term in the series

(a) B C D F (b) G H J K (c) L M N P (d) R S T V

[It should be QRST. Only vowels AEIOU have been left out from the alphabet: group of four letters in each case]

60. Find the wrong term in the series

(a) ACEZXV (b) BDFYWU (c) CEGXVT (d) DFIWUR

[it should be DFHWUS. 3 from the start and 3 from the end of Alphabet. A gap of one letter in between two]

61. Select suitable term to be placed in the gap.

B D F H J N P ….

(a) R S (b) S T (c) T U (d) T V

[following and preceeding letters of the vowels AEIOU]

62. Select suitable term to be placed in the gap

C F I L O R ….

(a) U X (b) V Y (c) W Z (d) None

[letters of places divisible by 3, 6, 9, 12 …. places].

63. Select suitable term to be placed in the gap

A-2, B-2, C-6, D-4, ……

(a) E-6, F-6. (b) E-10, F-6 (c) E-6, F-10 (d) E-10, F-12

[letters of odd number places are given double number whereas the letters of even places retain the number of their respective positions. A = 2, B =2, C=6, D = 4, E=10, F=6 etc].

64. Select suitable term to be placed in the gap

E, J, O, …..

(a) R, W (b) S, X (c) T Y (d) None.

[ Letters are of paces 5, 10, 15, 20. 25. Divisible by 5 ]

65. Select suitable term to be placed in the gap

AZ. CX, EV, GT, ……

(a) IS (b) IR (c) JQ (d) None

[Letters of 1st, 3rd, 5th, 7th, etc. places from both ends]

66. Select suitable term to be placed in the gap

A, CD, …….., MNOP, UVWXY

(a) FGH (b) GHI (c) HIJ (d) IJK

[Omissions of 1, 2,3,4 letters after each group. B omitted after A, EF omitted after CD, JKL omitted after GHI, QRST omitted after MNOP]

67. Select suitable term to be placed in the gap

AB, DEF, …….., MNOPQ, STUVWX

(a) GHI (b) HIJ (4) HIJK (d) IJKL

[Group of 2, 3, 4 5 letters and one letter is omitted between two groups]

68. Select suitable term to be placed in the gap

Z A X C V E T G R I ……

(a) P K (b) O P (c) Q L (d) None.

[1 - 1; 3 - 3; 5 - 5; 7 - 7; 9 - 9 etc from the end and beginning of the alphabet]

69. Select suitable term to be placed in the gap

B, F, K, Q, …….

(a) V (b) W (c) X (d) Y

[Gap of 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 letters omitted CDE, GHIJ, LMNOP, RSTUVW ]

70. Select suitable term to be placed in the gap

Z, V, R, N, J, ,…….

(a) G (b) F (c) E (d) D

[26, 22, 18, 14, 10, 6, 2, letter, Right to left of the alphabet).

71. QUESTION = USINQETO : CEREMONY = ?

(a) ECEROMYN (b) EEOYCRMN (c) ERECMNOY (d) ERECOYMN

[The letters contained in the given word are used in Coding. The letters of even number places of the given word have been written at first after which the letters of odd number places havi been written. So, EEOYCRMN]

72. EXAMINATION = FYBNJOBUJPO : PARLIAMENTS = ?

(a) QBTNJBOFOV (b) QBSNJBOGOU (c) QBSMJBNFQU (d) None of these

[New letters are there in the code. The next letter of the given letter has been used in the code. e.g. A = B, B = C etc.]

73. LANGUAGE = HGALAUGN : PRINCIPAL = ?

(a) ALPRIPNICT (b) LARPINPIC (c) LARPPINIC (d) None

[Last pair at first then the first pair, both are in reverse order ]

74. COMPENSATE = 1234567895 : STATEMENT = ?

(a) 792954369 (b) 796952569 (c) 798752569 (d) 798953569

[Notice the corresponding number for each letter in code]

75. ADMINISTRATOR = ADMNSTRTR : ORGANISATION = ?

(a) ORGNISTON (b) ORGNSTN (c) ORGANSTON (d) None

[All vowels except one at the beginning have been omitted]

76. GOVERNMENT = IOXETPOEPV : DEMOCRACY = ?

(a) FGOQETCEA (b) FENOCTAEY (c) FEOOETAEA (d) None

[The vowels are retained as usual but the consonants are changed to 2 -steps forward letters. A=C, B=D, C=E, D=F, E=G etc.]

77. MOST = LNNPRTSU : YIELD = ?

(a) XZHJDFKMCE (b) XZGHCDJKCE (c) XZJKDEKMCF (d) None of these.

[Two letters on two sides of the given letter are used as Code. A=ZB, B=AC, C=BD, D=CE, E=DP, F=EG, H=GI etc.]

78. If GREAT = 12345 and COULD = 60789, then GUARD = ?

(a) 17429 (b) 15439 (c) 17539 (d) None of these

[Notice the number substituted for each letter. G=1, R=2, E=3, A=4, T=5, C=6, O=0, U=7, L=8, D=9 ]

79. PHILOSOPHY = OGHKNRNOGX : MESSANGER = ?

(a) NDRTZMFDQ (b) LDRRDMFDQ (c) LDRRZMFDQ (d) None of these.

[The preceeding letter is used as code. A=Z, B=A, C=B, D=C, E=D etc]

80. MONKEY = NMOJFX : RELIGION = ?

(a) SDMHHHPM (b) SDMHJHNM (c) QFMJHJPO (d) None

[Considered in pairs. One step forward letter for the first one and one step backward for the second one in each pair.]

81. If a group of 4 persons cover a distance in 8 hours. what will be the required time to cover the distance by 2 persons.

(a) 16 hours (b) 8 hours (c) 4 hours (d) None of these.

[Required time will be the same for 1 man or more]

82. A Football match always has :

(a) players (b) spectators (c) referee (d) sponsor

[No match without players. Others are not indispensable.]

83. If all the even numbered letters of the English Alphabet are crossed out, then which would be the eight letter ?

(a) M (b) N (c) O (d) P

[7 letters to be crossed or omitted. So 7+8 = 15th letter = O]

84. Gold is costlier than Silver because it is :

(a) used to make ornament (b) scarcer in supply

[Scarcity in supply determine the price ]

85. A solid wooden uniform cube having an edge 2 ft. in length is painted on all sides. Total painted area is :

(a) 8 sq. ft. (b) 12 sq. ft. (c) 24 sq. ft. (d) None.

86. A Song always has got:

(a) Music (b) Chorus (c) Words (d) None

[There can be no song without words . Others not necessary]

87. An Earthquake always has got:

(a) destruction (b) collapse (c) debris (d) tremor

[Tremor is necessarily presents. A mild earthquake may not have destruction of any nature]

88. What is the angular difference between hour and minute hand of a clock at 15 hours.

(a) 0° (b) 60° (c) 90° (d) 120°

[15 hour=3 P.M. i.e. 3 O’clock. Hour and minute hands will make 90° angle]

89. If a cow is kept tied with a 20 ft long rope in a field, the grazing area of the cow will be

(a) square (b) circular (c) rectangular (d) none

[20 ft rope will be the radius of the circle]

90. Which one will come at last in a dictionary (in the group) :

(a) Profit (b) product (c) produce (d) procure

91. Investment always involves :

(a) management (b) construction (c) money (d) Banks

[Money is required to be invested. Here Money= Wealth]

92. Robin’s father’s father’s wife’s daughter’s son’s daughter’s son will be related to Robin as a :

(a) cousin (b) nephew (c) brother (d) grandson

93. An aeroplane travelling from Calcutta to Tokyo is to move :

(a) Norih (b) North west (c) North east (d) East

94. Which one of the following is same as child, baby, person ?

(a) brother (b) sister (c) parents (d) spokesman

[Parents as common gender words, Others are masculine or feminine]

95. Which one of the following is not similar with others :

(a) Babur (b) Shahjahan (c) Balban (d) Bahadur Shah

[Others are Mughal rulers]

96. A couple rented a house and began to live there. One day parents of both came to visit them. On the same day another couple along with a couple of children were invited. How many persons gathered there ?

(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 12

97. Which one of the following is the same as Humid, damp, wet ?

(a) weather (b) moist (c) climate (d) storm

[water content in air. Others in question are of basically same meaning]

98. An ‘information’ has always got : (to be received)

(a) Telephone (b) Communication (c) document (d) television

[No information can be received without communication made through various methods including Radio, TV, Telephone etc.]

99. Cooking is quicker in a pressure cooker because in it :

(a) heat is higher (b) air pressure is lower (c) air pressure is higher (d) Vapour can be retained.

100. With whom there is not blood relationship in a family ?

(a) Uncle (b) Aunt (c) grandmother (d) nephew

101. Find out the dissimilar one from the group :

(a) Square (b) rectangle (c) circle (d) angle

[Angle is not a bounded surface (others have bounded area]

102. Find out the dissimilar one from the group :

(a) Inch (b) pound (c) Yard (d) metre

[Pound is not to measure length (others are to measure length]

103. Find out the dissimilar one from the group :

(a) eminent (b) prominent (c) ordinary (d) influential

[others signify ‘important’ in meaning].

104. Find out the dissimilar one from the group :

(a) India (b) Sri Lanka (c) Bangladesh (d) Pakistan

[Sri Lanka is an island country (others are not island]

105. Find out the dissimilar one from the group :

(a) Football (b) Cricket (c) Hockey (d) Chess

[Chess is an indoor game (others are outdoor game]

106. Find out the dissimilar one from the group :

(a) Asia (b) Europe (c) Africa (d) Australia

[Australia is the name of both continent and country]

107. Find out the dissimilar one from the group :

(a) Altimeter (b) Manometer (c) Kilometer (d) Micrometer

[Kilometre is measurement of length (others are instrument) Altimeter is to measure altitude i.e. height. Manometer is to measure pressure of gases. Micrometer is to measure small distance or angles]

108. Find out the dissimilar one from the group :

(a) Genetics (b) optics (c) Aeronautics (d) thermostat

[Thermostat is an instrument to control temperature (others are subjects of studies-Genetics for heredity of animals, Optics on light, Aeronautics on art of flying]

109. Find out the dissimilar one from the group :

(a) Abyssinia (b) Mesopotamia (c) Lesotho (d) Formosa

[Lesotho is the name of modern country which was previously known as Basutoland. This country is situated as an enclave within South Africa. Others are former name of (a) Ethiopia (b) Iraq and (d) Taiwan]

110. Find out the dissimilar one from the group :

(a) Engineers (b) Graduates (c) Teacher (d) Lawyers

[Graduates are persons having specific educational degree e.g. BA, B.Com., B.Sc, M.B.B.S., BE etc. Others are degree for professionals i.e. degree to enter into profession]

111. Select suitable word to be placed in the blank.

Cotton : cloth : : wood : ……..

(a) coal (b) chair (c) furniture (d) fuel

112. Select suitable word to be placed in the blank.

Snake : reptile : : Shirt : ………

(a) cloth (b) dress (c) thread (d) tailor

[Snake is part of the group of reptile. Similarly Shirt is a part of the group of dress]

113. Select suitable word to be placed in the blank.

Devil : wrong : : pious : ……….

(a) holy (b) right (c) genius (d) bright

[Devil follows wrong path, similarly pious men follow right path].

114. Select suitable word to be placed in the blank.

Inexperience : errors : : Education : ……….

(a) books (b) teachers (c) discipline (d) library

[Inexperience brings errors. Cause and effect relationship. In ihe same way education brings discipline]

115. Select suitable word to be placed in the blank.

Arrongance : modesty : : Strength : ………

(a) ability (b) courage (c) debility (d) destruction

[Modesty is Antonym of arrogance. Similarly debility is an antonym of the word Strength]

116. Select suitable word to be placed in the blank.

Ornaments : necklace : : Equipments : …….

(a) machines (b) appliances (c) Engineers (d) typewriter

[Necklace is one type of ornaments. Similarly typewriter is one type of equipments]

117. Select suitable word to be placed in the blank.

Newspaper : news :: Advertisement : ……….

(a) information (b) product (c) publicity (d) Agency.

[Newspaper give us news. Similarly advertisements give us Information of various matters]

118. Select suitable word to be placed in the blank.

Agriculture : soil :: fishing : ………

(a) fisherman (b) boats (c) water (d) nets

[Soil is extensively used for agricultural purpose. In the same manner water resources are used for fishing purpose]

119. Select suitable word to be placed in the blank.

Train : compartments :: house : ……..

(a) owners (b) buildings (c) rooms (d) structures

[A train has got several compartments. Similarly a house has several rooms]

120. Select suitable word to be placed in the blank.

Hospital : patients : : University : ………..

(a) teachers (b) lessons (c) Library (d) students

[Hospital treats patients. University educates students]

121. What is necessarily present in a newspaper ?

(a) Editor (b) journalist (c) news (d) advertisement

[News are always there in a newspaper, Others may not]

122. Which is not necessarily required in a country ?

(a) people (b) area (c) government (d) industries

[A country may not have industries as was in ancient days]

123. An aeroplane must have :

(a) Pilot (b) passengers (c) Radar (d) machine

[Machine to fly must be there .There are pilotless planes in modern days. Passengers or radar may not be there]

124. What is necessarily present in Antarctica ?

(a) people (b) bear (c) snow (d) researchers

[Snow or ice is always there in polar regions, others may not be there in polar region]

125. A democratic country has necessarily got :

(a) politicians (b) voters (c) Parties (d) Courts

[Voters are always there in Democratic countries. Others an there even in other types of countries e.g. Monarchy]

126. Any person has necessarily got : (alive persons)

(a) name (b) fame (c) hunger (d) wealth

[Hunger is necessarily common for everyone. Name may not be there for a new born baby. Fame & wealth may not have]

127. Controversy always originates from :

(a) sentiment (b) disagreement (c) enmity (d) difficulty

[Disagreement on specific matter brings controversy].

128. A farmer always requires :

(a) fertilizer (b) tractor (c) plough (d) land

[Land is necessarily required. Others may not be required for farming]

129. A student must be provided with :

(a) books (b) teachers (c) lessons (d) pen

[Lessons, in various methods and manners, can be provided to the students. Students can also learn through listening or observing. Nature around us can give lessons to learn]

130. We get light from :

(a) The Sun (b) electricity (c) fuel (d) fire

[Fire is the ultimate source of light even in the Sun or in electric bulb. Electricity helps to create fire in bulb]

131. Find one from the alternatives which does not bear relationship as others.

(a) father-son (b) mother-daughter (c) brother-sister (d) uncle-nephew

[Brothers and sister is differently related, others are parent and offspring i.e. children relationship].

132. Find one from the alternatives which does not bear relationship as others.

(a) College-Principle (b) Newspaper-Editor (c) Bank-Manager (d) Company-shareholders

[Company - shareholders are differently related, in others chief of the institutions are shown].

133. Find one from the alternatives which does not bear relationship as others.

(a) House-room (b) hand-fingers (c) bottle-wine (d) tree-branches.

[Bottle -wine is differently related, others have whole-part relationship]

134. Find one from the alternatives which does not bear relationship as others.

(a) pen-paper (b) Saw-wood (c) Hammer-nail (d) Press-Print

[Press - Print relation is different, in other cases an instrument and an object on which the instrument basically work has been shown].

135. Find one from the alternatives which does not bear relationship as others.

(a) Wool-soft (b) Stone-hard (c) glass-smooth (d) Ice-while

[Ice - White relation is different, others properties as felt in touch. But whiteness is a matter to be seen].

136. Find one from the alternatives which does not bear relationship as others.

(a) fish-water (b) bird-sky (c) train-station (d) car-road.

[Train - Station is differently related, in other cases area of movement have been shown. Train-rail would show same type of relationship as shown in other cases].

137. Find one from the alternatives which does not bear relationship as others.

(a) hospital-patient (b) prison-criminal (c) School-teacher (d) Collage-student.

[School -Teacher is differently related, (In other cases organizations and basic inmates have been shown. School-Students would show the same]

138. Find one from the alternatives which does not bear relationship as others.

(a) brother-sister (b) uncle-aunt (c) son-daughter (d) father-mother

[Father-Mother have got the relationship through marriage, others may not have marital relations. Aunt may not be wife ol Uncle. Unmarried women may also be aunts].

139. Find one from the alternatives which does not bear relationship as others.

(a) sun-moon (b) day-night (c) high-low (d) hard-soft.

[Sun-Moon is differently related, others are Antonym relationship].

140. Find one from the alternatives which does not bear relationship as others.

(a) War-grief (b) peace-joy (c) life-death (d) wound-pain.

[Life-Death is differently related, others are cause effect relationship].

141. Find out one which is dissimilar from others.

(a) 15 (b) 25 (c) 100 (d) 400

[15 is not a square number (others are square number]

142. Find out one which is dissimilar from others.

(a) 29 (b) 49 (c) 69 (d) 89

[49 is a square number (others are not square number]

143. Find out one which is dissimilar from others.

(a) January (b) February (c) July (d) August

[February has got 28 or 29 days (others have 31 days].

144. Find out one which is dissimilar from others.

(a) 10 (b) 50 (c) 65 (d) 85

[Except 85, others are a square number + 1 .e.g. 3²+1=10, 7²+1=50, 8²+1=65]

145. Find out one which is dissimilar from others.

(a) Weekly (b) fortnightly (c) monthly (d) periodical

[Periodical is uncertain relating to time period, others are certain relating to time period of publication]

146. Find out one which is dissimilar from others.

(a) 4000 (b) 6000 (c) 8000 (d) 10000

[10,000 has got 5 digits, others are 4 digit numbers]

147. Find out one which is dissimilar from others.

(a) 81 (6) 97 (c) 125 (d) 141

[97 is a prime number, others are divisible]

148. Find out one which is dissimilar from others.

(a) 7 (b) 30 (c) 365 (d) 450

[450 does not convey as others (7 days =1 week, 30 days=1 month, 365 days=1 year)]

149. Find out one which is dissimilar from others.

(a) 18 (b) 32 (c) 72 (d) 92

[Except 92 others are double of square numbers. As 2x3²=18, 2x4²=32, 2x6²=72]

150. Find out one which is dissimilar from others.

(a) 64 (b) 125 (c) 500 (d) 1000

[Except 500, others are cube numbers. 4³=64, 5³=125, 10³=1000].

151. Which one is dissimilar along :

(a) Sanskrit (b) Hindi (c) Tamil (d) English

[English is an European Language, others are Indian origin]

152. An automobile is related to carriage in the same way an electric light is related to :

(a) bulb (b) lamp (c) wire (d) dynamo.

[Carriage was the ancient vehicle driven by beasts. In the same way lamp was light of ancient age]

153. In a family dinner organized by Mr. X and his wife, the persons attended were their son and daughter along with respective spouse, a couple of children of each family and one servant of each of the families. How many persons attended to dine.

(a) 7 (b)9 (c) 11 (d) 13

[2+2+2 (wife and husband of son and daughter) + 4 children + 3 servants = 13 persons in total took food]

154. Which one of the following number is repeated at the earliest in the series : 34587569387498532154

(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 8

155. Cocks and hares were kept in a big case. There were 64 legs but 24 heads. How many cocks were there.

(a) 12 (b) 14 (c) 16 (d) 20

[If all were cocks there would be 24x2=48 legs. So extra 64 - 48 =16 legs were for 8 heads. So cocks were 16]

156. The hour-hand of a clock moved 75° just after midday. The time in the clock was :

(a) 14 hours (b) 14-30 hours (c) 15 hours (d) 15-30 hours.

[Hour hand of a clock moves 30° in an hour as it moves 360° in 12 hours. So the time was 12 noon+2-30 hours = 14-30 hours or 2-30 P.M.]

157. Total food and drink @ 5kg. a day for an average Indian-life is required to be carried by a :

(a) Taxi (b) truck (c) train (d) big ship

[Average Indian life = 60 years. So 5x365x60 kg. = around 1.8 ton x 60 = Around 100 ton. So a trainload. A big ship can carry several thousand tons]

158. A human being must have :

(a) eyes (b) hands (c) heart (d) legs

[No man can live without heart, others may be absent in the cases of handicapped persons]

159. If a spinner is related to cotton then blacksmith is related to :

(a) hammer (b) fire (c) iron (d) hook

[spinner makes yarn from cotton. Similarly blacksmith makes instruments from iron]

160. A mountain always has :

(a) river (b) snow (c) trees (d) height

[Height is common, others may be absent in many cases].

161. With the help of how many curves a bounded area can be made, (minimum number).

(a) one (b) two (c) three (d) four

[One curve can make a bounded area. e.g. a circle, but minimimi 3 straight lines are required to make a bounded area e.g. a triangle].

162. A sheet of paper of size 32”x24” is cut into 8 equal pieces. Size of each small sheet may be :

(a) 4”x3” (b) 4”x6” (c) 8”x6” (d) 8”x12”

[Consider area (32x24) ÷ (8x12) = 8

163. A man had four children and all of them were married. The members of the couples decided to have minimum possible offspring in the family. How many grand-children the man can expect :

(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16

[The statement conveys a system of one child family. So 4 grand children can be expected.]

164. A piece of hardboard of size 6 ft x 4 ft is made into 4 pieces cutting through the diagonal. The maximum side of a piece may be :

(a) 6 ft. (b) 4 ft. (c) 3 ft. (d) 2 ft.

[Imagine the diagram. If the hardboard is cut diagonally, the length of side of the hardboard remain same]

165. Which one of the following is the strongest in relation to body weight :

(a) elephant (b) lion (c) parrot (d) ant

[An ant can carry several times heavier load in relation to its body weight, so considered the strongest on the basis of the statement].

166. Which one is the same as Greenland, Sumatra, Java :

(a) Hokkaido (b) Sahara (c) Andes (d) Ural

[Hokkaido, Sumatra, Greenland, Java are islands. Shahari is desert. Andes= a mountain range. Ural is a river.]

167. Which one is dissimilar in relation to others :

(a) Sputnik (b) Vostok (c) Lunokhod (d) Mir

[Mir is a Space station. Others are name of rockets ]

168. If MANIPULATION is coded as OCPKRWNCVKQP : The Code for INTEGRATED will be :

(a) KPWHISDVGE (b) KPVGITCVGF (C) KPVGJSCVHF (d) JPVGHTDVHE

[2 step forward letter as code for each letter. A=C, D=F etc]

169. Which one has not been properly codified on a single method :

(a) help = geko (b) trip = sqio (c) girl = fhqk (d) plan = okam

[One step backward letter for the consonant. e.g. A=Z, D=C. Vowels remain unchanged. But for ‘girl’ vowel has been changed. The code for girl is “fiqk” on the same principle].

170. Which one of the following is dissimilar in relation to others.

(a) Carbohydrates (b) proteins (c) Vitamins (d) cereals

[Cereals convey various food crops like rice, wheat, etc. Others are nutritional elements found in foods]

171. A person moved 5 km. northward, then 5 km towards his right, again 5 km. towards his right. Now how far he was from his point of start.

(a) 15 km (b) 10 km (c) 5 km (d) None of these

[Movement of the diagram is like a Sqire]

172. How many one-rupee coins, in maximum, can be conveniently set around a one-rupee coin at the centre (having touch with one another).

(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8

173. In which case the area of the plain surface will be highest.

(a) 2 metre as a side of a square

(b) 2 metre as diameter of a circle

(d) 2 metre as the hypotenuse of a triangle.

174. A squared area is divided in 16 equal parts. Each parts become uniform square. Two diagonals are drawn. How many of the smaller squares will not became cut by the diagonals.

(a) 12 (b) 8 (c) 4 (d) None of these.

175. The germs of disease are not generally carried by :

(a) water (b) air (c) animal (d) fire

[fire destroys germs]

176. The people of Europe are of fair complexion because of :

(a) better living conditions (b) more consumption of fruits

(c) less heat of the sun (d) people of fair race live there

[Less heat through generations brightened their complexion. The more heat, the more blackish the complexion resulted through ages. As for example: African people are black for having extreme heat there. Even in India people of Northern India e.g. Garwal range, Kashmir, Punjab etc. have got brighter complexion in comparison to that of hot South like Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka etc.]

177. Which country has got a National flag of special shape ?

(a) Bangladesh (b) Nepal (c) Bhutan (d) Sri Lanka

178. A person was able to observe his birthday only for a few years during his long life time : His date of birth was : -

(a) 28th (b) 29th (c) 30th (d) 31st

[29th February (which come generally after 4 years, being the Leap year]

179. Crime are committed through the violation of :

(a) ethics (b) morality (c) religious beliefs (d) law

[Crimes are activities which violate laws of the country, Violation of others are considered as ‘Sin’ by people. Crimes convey outside activities. Sin may be mental.]

180. Which one of the following is different from others :

(a) singing (b) thinking (c) swimming (d) walking

[Thinking requires no movement, others have outward movement]

181. Which one is different from others :

(a) Sunday (b) Monday (c) Friday (d) Saturday

[Saturday has got 8 letters, in other cases 6 letters]

182. In which case there are maximum number of heads :

(a) Scholars (b) Literates (c) people (d) illiterates

[People are maximum in number, others are included within the term ‘people’ Scholars may be considered within the group ‘literates’. Highly efficient persons among the literates may be considered ‘Scholars’ ]

183. In which case there are minimum number of heads :

(a) Women (b) wives (c) mothers (d) daughters

[because all women/daughters or wives may not become mothers. It is to be assumed here that all mothers are definitely wives of persons in marriage system]

184. Which one includes others :

(a) books (b) printed matter (c) news papers (d) magazines

[Printed matter includes all, e.g. newspapers, books, magazines]

185. Which one of the following statements is definitely true.

(a) All teachers are graduates (b) All students are honest

[All birds are animals (i.e. some animals are birds) is definitely true. Logically speaking all living beings having capacity to move are considered within the term animals. People are also considered within this group. But people are considered ‘Rational Animal’ for intelligence.]

186. Which one of the following statements is definitely false ?

(a) some women are wives (b) some animals are mortal

[Some animals are mortal is false because of the reason that all animals are mortal. Through observation and logical deduction we find that birth, growth and decay or death are common for all living things, animals & plants]

187. Which cannot be made with many number of match-sticks :

(a) square (b) triangle (c) octagon (d) circle

[Circle cannot be made as the match-sticks are like straight lines]

188. The movement of the hour-hand of a clock in a day is :

(a) 180° (b) 200° (c) 360° (d) (c) 720°

[The hour hand moves 360° x 2=720° in 24 hour]

189. About whom, relating to a film, the cine-goers are least interested to know :

(a) actor (b) actress (c) script-writer (d) director

[Script-writer is of no interest for average cine-goers. Script writer is the person who writes dialogues for films.]

190. The price of which item is of least concern for the common of Indian societies :

(a) salt (b) typewriter (c) books (d) sugar

[Typewriters are not highly used by the common people of the Indian societies]

191. Daughter is related to mother. In the same way who is related to Aunt ?

(a) nephew (b) cousin (c) niece (d) sister

[The daughter of aunt is cousin. Cousin is a common gender and may mean boy or girl. Sometimes Cousin-brother/ cousin-sister is used to signify gender. Nephew is the son of brother or sister. Niece is the daughter of brother or sister]

192. If Cunning is considered a quality of fox; then timid will be considered a quality of :

(a) ant (b) ass (c) hare (d) crow

[Hare or Rabbit is highly timid in nature]

193. If profit is of main concern for an entrepreneur; then which one of the following is of main interest for a scholar ?

(a) power (b) fame (c) knowledge (d) recognition

[A scholar seeks knowledge in various ways and means]

194. A 2-metre wide road is there around a rectangular plot measuring 26 metre x 11 metre. The are of the road is :

(a) 104 metre (b) 164 metre (c) 186 metre (d) 164 sq. metre

[The measurement should be in square metre, not in metre, the answer will be (30x15)-(26x11)=450-286=164 sq. metre]

195. In which one of the following cases a triangle can not be drawn. When one of the sides in length units are :

(a) 5, 4, 3 (b) 6, 4, 3 (c) 8,5,2 (d) 10, 7, 5

[The sum of two smaller sides must be bigger than one biggest side. But here (5+2)=7 is smaller than 8, the biggest side of triangle]

196. A clock hung on the wall has got the face towards north. The minute hand at 3-45 PM. will remain towards :

(a) East (b) West (c) North-east (d) North-west

[Imagine the diagram]

197. In which one of the following there are least number of head ?

(a) Mammals (b) Vertebrate (c) Animal (d) Feline

[Feline means ‘Cat group’ . Animals may be divided into Vertebrate (having backbone) and non-vertebrate. Vertebrate may be divided into Mammals (sucking milk from mother) and non-mammals. Mammals may be divided into Feline and non-Feline]

198. A distance of 240 km. was covered by a train in 8 hours in Up journey and in 10 hours in Down journey. The Average speed of the train in the whole journey was around :

(a) 25 km (b) 27 km (c) 28 km (d) 30 km.

[240 km.x 2 = 480 km. ÷ 18 hours = 26⅔ km. per hour]

199. Of a certain journey 30% was travelled in train and 7.5% on foot. If distance travelled on foot was 6 km., the total distance covered was :

(a) 60 km (b) 75 km (c) 80 km (d) None of these

[24km=30%. So 8km=10%. So 100%=80 Km. =Whole journey.]

200. If Tongue is related to Taste, then which one of the following is related to Heat ?

(a) Sun (b) fire (c) skin (d) head

[Tongue tells us about Tastes of different things we like to eat or put into our mouths. Similarly Skin tell us about heat. The heat of a hot thing is generally felt through touching by hand i.e. skin of the hand.]

****

Book-page

WBCS

MCQ on General Mental Ability

WBCS Prelims

MCQ on Indian Polity and Economy for WBCS/SSC/Misc Competetive Exams/etc - II

administrator — Fri, 16 Jun 2017 12:20:56 +0000

1. which one has not been correctly matched ?

(a) National Youth Day : January 12 (b) National Science Day : February 28

(c) National Technology Day : May 17 (d) Ouit India Day : August 9

2. What is the approximate percentage of urban population of India in 2001 census :

(a) 26 (b) 28 (c) 30 (d) 32

3. What is the density of population of India in 2001 census report (per sq. km) :

(a) 316 (b) 320 (c) 324 (d) 328

4. In 2001 census highest literacy was for Kerala being around 90%. The second position being around 88% was for :

(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Mizoram (c) Nagaland (d) Goa

5. The length of National Highways of India in 2001 census was around (in thousand kms ) :

(a) 54 (b) 56 (c) 58 (d) 60

6. What is the approximate time of official playing of national anthem of India :

(a) 45 seconds (b) 52 seconds (c) 58 seconds (d) None of these

7. How many spokes are there in the wheel of the National Flag ol India :

(a) 16 (b) 20 (c) 24 (d) 32

8. The present National Anthem of India ‘Jana-gana-Mana…. ’ was first sung in the Congress session on 27th December, 1911 in session held at :

(a) Bombay (b) Lucknow (c) Calcutta (d) None

9. The first month of the National ‘Saka’ Calendar year of India is :

(a) Baishaka (b) Sravana (c) Phalguna (d) Chaitra

10. Indian State having largest population, Uttar Pradesh, send highest number of members in the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. The numbers are respectively :

(a) 70 - 25 (b) 75 - 28 (c) 80 - 31 (d) 85 - 34

11. On which date the first Lok Sabha of India was constituted ?

(a) March 12, 1952 (b) April 17, 1952 (c) May 7, 1952 (d) June 12, 1952

12. The first women President of the UN General Assembly was :

(a) Sarojini Naidu (b) Vijaylakshmi Pandit (c) Sucheta Kripalini (d) None of these

13. By which constitutional Amendment the voting age of Indians was lowered from 21 years to 18 years :

(a) 61st (b) 65th (c) 71st (d) 74th

14. Which one has not been correctly matched ?

(a) Operation Bluestar : Punjab (b) Operation Black Thunder : Assam

15. Which one is a India made Surface to air missile (SAM) ?

(a) Agni (b) Prithvi (c) Trisul (d) Nishant

16. On the basis of latest position number of Railway zones in India reached to :

(a) 12 (b) 14 (c) 16 (d) 18

17. In the census of 2001 the literacy rate of India reached to around 68%. What is the approximate literacy for males and females respectively ?

(a) 70 & 60% (b) 72 & 67% (c) 75 & 60% (d) 76 & 54%

18. What is the average percentage of people living below poverty line on the basis of 2001 census report ?

(a) 24 (b) 26 (c) 28 (d) 32

19. The National Remote Sensing Agency of India is located at :

(a) Bangalore (b) Chennai (c) Hyderabad (d) Mumbai

20. The Master Control Facility (MCF) associated with Indian Space project is located at Hassan of :

(a) Madhya pradesh (b) Kerala (c) Karnataka (d) Andhrapradesh

21. In which year the National Council of Educational Research & Training (NCERT) was set up :

22. In which city the Indian Institute of Astrophysics is located ?

(a) Bangalore (b) Mumbai (c) Hyderabad (c) Allahabad

23. Central Food Technological Research Institute is located in :

(a) Bijapur (b) Mysore (c) Hassan (d) Bangalore

24. The Central Institute of Medicinal and Aromatic Plants is located at :

(a) Dheradun (b) Lucknow (c) Allahabad (d) None

25. In 1955 the Congress party adopted resolution to introduce Socialist pattern of economy in India. The session was held in :

(a) Allahabad of Uttar Pradesh (b) Avadi of Tamil Nadu

26. Privy Purses for former rulers of Native Indian States were abolished in :

27. In which year Mr. Rajiv Gandhi was killed ?

28. In which year Mr. Vajpayee went to Lahore by Bus journey ?

29. Who was appointed as the first woman Governor of an Indian State (U.P) :

(a) Vijaykakshmi Pandit (b) Padmaja Naidu (c) Sarojini Naidu (d) None of these

30. First Woman Chief Minister of an Indian State was : (of Uttar Pradesh) :

(a) Sucheta Kripalani (b) Nandini Satpati (c) Kumudben Joshi (d) None of these

31. The biggest State of India in Area, Rajasthan has area of around :

(a) 3.4 Lakh sq .km (b) 2.8 lakh sq .km (c) 2.2 lakh sq.km (d) 1.8 lakh sq.km

32. The smallest State of India in area, Goa, has area of around :

(a) 4.3 thousand sq. km (b) 3.7 thousand sq. km

33. Which one has not been correctly matched ?

(a) Chhattisgarh : Raipur (b) Uttaranchal : Nainital (c) Lakshadweep : Kavarati (d) Goa : Panaji

34. India is expected to be largest country in population in :

35. Indian State having lowest literacy rate in 2001 census was :

(a) Rajasthan (b) Jharkhand (c) Bihar (d) None of these

36. The Pakistani President General Pervez Musharaf attend ‘Agra Summit’ in July of :

37. What is the name of India made small passenger aircraft ?

(a) Saras (b) Balaka (c) Hansa (d) None of these

38. ‘Dada Saheb Phalke’ awards are given in India in the field of :

(a) literature (b) science (c) Cinema (d) None of these

39. With which organisation India is not assiociated as a member

(a) SAARC (b) UNO (c) WTO (d) ASEAN

40. Who was chosen as the Chairman of the 12th Finance Commission of India ?

(a) Bimal Jalan (b) C. Rangarajan (c) Raja C. Chaliah (d) None

41. India was not founder member of the :

(a) UNO (b) NAM (c) WTO (d) NAFTA

42. Which one has not been correctly matched regarding Railway zone Headquarter ?

(a) East Coast Railway : Bhubaneswar (b) South East Central Rail : Bilaspur

43. Head Quarter of How many Railway zones are there in Kolkata :

(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) None of these

44. First Asian games were arranged in New Delhi in 1951. Again New Delhi hosted the Asian Games in :

45. National Capital Territory, Delhi has Assembly of 70 members. The Union Territory of Pondicherry “has Assembly of :

(a) 30 members (b) 33 members (c) 36 members (d) 40 members

46. Which one has not been correctly matched :

(a) University of Roorkee : Uttaranchal (b) Bundelkhand University : Madhya Pradesh

47. India State having more number of females in relation of males in 2001 was :

(a) Haryana (b) Kerala (c) West Bengal (d) Punjab

48. After the creation of Chhattisgarh State, in area Madhya Pradesh emerged in position in respect of area as the :

(a) Second State (b) Third State (c) Fourth State (d) None

49. Indian newspaper having highest number of circulation is :

(a) Hindustan Times (b) Times of India (c) Dainik Jagran (d) Dainik Bhaskar

50. Which one is not correctly matched regarding Railway zone

(a) East Central : Hajipur (b) North Western : Jaipur

51. Which one of the following authorities may suspend the enjoyment of Fundamental Rights of the Indian people :

(a) Union Cabinet (b) Union Council of Ministers (c) The Parliament (d) None of these

52. Which one of the following does not fall under Union List ?

(a) TV transmission (b) Banking (c) Forest (d) Citizenship

53. State Government employees are thought to work under the control of the concerned :

(a) State Council of Ministers (b) Chief Minister (c) Governor (d) None of these.

54. Indian Citizenship can be acquired by :

(a) birth (b) naturalization (c) registration (d) All of these

55. Which one of the following is not an autonomous organization ?

(a) Election Commission (b) Planning Commission

56. A District Judge hears cases relating to :

(a) Civil matter (b) Criminal matter (c) Constitutional matter (d) None of these

57. How many seats are there for West Bengal in Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha respectively ?

(a) 40 and 18 (b) 44 and 20 (c) 42 and 16 (d) None of these

58. With an issue of which State of India Sri Krishna Commission was linked ?

(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Maharastra (c) Gujarat (d) None of these

59. What was the population of India at the time of Indian Indepedence in 1947 ?

(a) Around 30 crore (b) around 35 crore (c) Around 40 crore (d) Around 45 crore

60. In which year the planning Commission of India was formed ?

61. What was the area of highest importance in 1st Five Year Plan ?

(a) Agriculture (b) Industries (c) Communication (d) None

62. Who was the Prime Minister of India when Private Banks were nationalized by the Union Government of India ?

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Indira Gandhi (c) Morerji Desai (d) None

63. Among the countries of Asia, Indian economy is in …. position.

(a) 1st (b) 2nd (c) 3rd (d) None of these

64. Around what percent of total population of world are found to live in India :

(a) 10% (b) 15% (c) 20% (d) 25%

65. Which one of the following Banks has got largest number of Branches among all the Banks of India ?

(a) State Bank of India (b) Reserve Bank of India (c) Allahabad Bank (d) United Bank of India.

66. Currency notes of which denomination is not circulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) ?

(a) Rs. 500 (b) Rs. 100 (c) Rs. 5 (d) Rs. 1

67. National income and per-capita income in India is calculated by the organisation named ?

(a) RBI (b) CSO (c) FICC1 (d) None of these

68. Which one of the following is not the name of a specialized Financial Institution ?

(a) IDBI (b) NABARD (c) EXIM Bank (d) UCO Bank

69. What is the average Life Expectancy of an Indian on the basis of 1991 census (Approx.) :

(a) 30 years (b) 40 years (c) 50 years (d) 60 years

70. In which area Public Sector has got very little importance ?

(a) Industry (b) Agriculture (c) Services (d) None of these

71. Which one of the following is not associated with the term ‘Infrastructure’ ?

(a) Power Generation (b) Telecommunication Services

72. What percentage of Indian people lived in Urban areas on the basis of 1991 census report ? (Approximately)

(a) 20% (b) 25% (c) 30% (d) 35%

73. Which one is the biggest city in population in 2001 Census ?

(a) Calcutta (b) Bombay (c) Delhi (d) None of these

74. Which gives highest tax collection for the Government of India ?

(a) Income Tax (b) Excise (c) Corporation Tax (d) None

75. In which area highest expenditure is done by the Government of India in each of present Years ? (as observed in the initial period of 21st century)

(a) Defence (b) Debt servicing

(d) Administrative expenses

76. Which one of the following States contributes highest amount in the form of taxes to the Governmental agencies ?

(a) Maharashtra (b) Gujarat (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) None

77. Which one of the following is not exported from India ?

(a) Tea (b) Coffee (c) Natural rubber (d) Spices

78. The biggest producer of Tobacco among Indian States is :

(a) Gujarat (b) Andhra Pradesh (c) Orissa (d) None of these

79. In which case Gujarat is not the biggest producer among States :

(a) Salt (b) Ground-nut (c) Cotton (d) Coconut

80. Which region of India has highest per-capita income ?

(a) Punjab (b) Delhi (c) Maharashtra (d) Bihar

81. Which one of the following States has got highest production of agricultural crops per acre of land used ?

(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) West Bengal (c) Punjab (d) Rajasthan.

82. Which one of the following States is the biggest producer of mineral items in value ?

(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Orissa (c) Bihar (d) Jharkhand

83. In which case India is the leading exporter in the world ?

(a) Coal (b) Iron Ore (c) Mica (d) None of these

84. Which one has got Gold Mines in India ?

(a) Gujarat (b) Karnataka (c) Bihar (d) None of these

85. Which State has got highest production of diamond from mines ?

(a) Rajasthan (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) None

86. What is the approximate percentage share of India in the total global trading i.e. international trade.

(a) 1% (b)5% (c) 10% (d) None of these

87. The Stock Exchange of which one of the following Places has got highest transaction in India ?

(a) Dalal Street (b) Lyons Range (c) Bank Street (d) None

88. The biggest Mutual Fund Organisation in India is :

(a) UTI (b) LIC (c) GIC (d) None of these

89. Which one of the following group invest highest amount in the area of purchasing shares/debentures etc. in India ?

(a) Government (b) Companies (c) Members of public (d) None

90. In respect of global Trade India is a country having :

(a) Surplus balance (b) Deficit position (c) equality of both import and export (d) None of these

91. For which area of imports India is required to spend highest volume of foreign exchange from Public Sector fund ?

(a) Petroleum (b) Food items (c) Gold (d) None of these

92. The oldest oil mines of India are located in :

(a) Maharashtra (b) Gujarat (c) Assam (d) None of these

93. Approximate route length of Indian Railways is around :

(a) 50,000 kms (b) 60,000 kms (c) 75,000 kms (d) 1 lakh kms.

94. The Head Quarters of which Railway Zones is not located in Kolkata ?

(a) Eastern Rail (b) South Eastern Rail (c) North Eastern Rail (d) None of these

95. The H.Q. of South Central Rail is located at :

(a) Chennai (b) Secunderabad (c) Maligaon (d) Churchgate

96. Which one of the following Sea-ports is not in Western Coast ?

(a) Kandla (b) Murmagao (c) Cochin (d) Paradip

97. In which State New Mangalore Port is situated ?

(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Karnataka (c) Madhya Pradesh (d)None

98. What is the approximate length of metalled (i.e.pucca ) road on the soil of India ?

(a) 5 lakh kms (b) 10 lakh kms (c) 20 lakh kms (d) 25 lakh kms.

99. Which one has got most developed road system in India ?

(a) Punjab (b) Rajasthan (c) Orissa (d) West Bengal

100. Through which process India produces highest volume of power ?

(a) Thermal (b) Hydroelectric (c) Atomic (d) Solar

101. With which country India has entered into an agreement to produce Hydroelectricity ?

(a) Myanmar (b) Bangladesh (c) Nepal (d) Bhutan

102. Through which system highest area of Lands of India are irrigated ?

(a) Canal (b) Deep Tubewells (c) Tanks (d) None

103. Around what percentage of National income of India is contributed by the Agricultural sector ?

(a) 20)% (b) 30% (c) 40% (d) 50%

104. In which area India is not in deficit position in respect of production ?

(a) Oil-seeds (b) Pulses (c) Vegetables (d) None

105. In which case India has got largest number in the world ?

(a) Goats & sheep (b) Cattle heads (c) Chickens (d) All of these

106. Around which percentage of GDP is contributed by the Public sector enteiprises in the Indian economy ?

(a) 25% (b) 40% (c) 50% (d) 60%

107. Around what percentage of GDP is saved yearly in India ?

(a) 25% (b) 35% (c) 50% (d) More than 50%

108. By how many times prices of goods and services have become increased in India since Independence in 1947 ?

(a) 20 times (b) 30 times (c) 40 times (d) None of these

109. For which amount no corresponding goods and services are supplied in the economy ?

(a) Foreign loan (b) Deficit financing (c) Taxes (d) None

110. in which year New Economic Policy (NEP) was announced in India ?

111. In which year Liberalization of Industrial Licensing Policies were announced in India ?

112. From what area Indian planners receive highest amount ?

(a) Surplus from taxes (b) Internal borrowing (c) External borrowing (d) Deficit Financing

113. In which case the role of Public sector Enterprises is not supreme in the Economy of India ?

(a) Petroleum marketing (b) Computer manufacturing

114. The term ‘Administered Price’ is associated with :

(a) Public Sector (b) Private Sector (c) Organised Sector (d) Unorganised sector

115. In which case the workers are associated with Unorganised sector in the economy of India ?

(a) Iron & Steel Industry workers (b) Coal mine workers

(c) Handloom workers (d) None of these

116. In which case there are larger number of workers than any other among the areas mentioned in the alternatives ?

(a) Cement (b) Steel (c) Textiles (d) Computers

117. In which sector India has been showing highest growth in recent years ?

(a) Agriculture (b) Industries (c) Services (d) None

118. IDBI, IFCI, ICICl are associated with …….. sector :

(a) Agricultural (b) Industrial (c) Services (d) None of these

119. Which one arrange foreign exchange as loan for the Government of India ?

(a) IBRD (b) ADB (c) IMF (d) All of these

120. The Scheduled Banks of India are controlled by the :

(a) UTI (b) Bank’s Association (c) RBI (d) None of these

121. What was the target of overall growth in GDP per annum during the 9th Year Plan period (1997-2002) ?

(a) 50% (b) 6% (c) 6.5% (d) 7%

122. To reduce unemployment in India, plans are required to be taken to introduce …….. technique of production.

(a) Capital-intensive (b) Labour-intensive (c) Labour-saving (d) None of these

123. In which year 8th Five Year Plan of India was started ?

124. Approximate per capita or per head yearly income of an Indian on basis of findings of 2001 census was :

(a) 10,000 (b) Rs. 12,000 (c) Rs. 14,000 (d) Rs. 16,000

125. By which percent population of India increased from 1991 to 2001 (i.e decadal growth approximately) :

(a) 17% (b) 19% (c) 21% (d) 23%

126. What was the average density of population in Indian per sq. km. 2001 census report :

(a) 288 persons (b) 304 persons (c) 322 persons (d) 324 persons

127. Average fertility rate i.e number of children per married women on the basis of 2001 census was :

(a) 2.5 (b) 2.8 (c) 3.2 (d) 3.6

128. Average birth rate per 1000 persons in India in 2001 census was (approximately) :

(a) 22 (b) 24 (c) 26 (d) 28

129. Average death rate per 1000 persons per year in India in 2001 census was (Approximately) :

(a) 7 (b) 9 (c) 11 (d) 13

130. Persons living below poverty line in India on the basis of 2001 census was :

(a) 26% (b) 30% (c) 34% (d) 42%

131. The target for 10th plan (Plan period 2002-2007) was to reduce persons living below poverty line to :

(a) 18% (b) 20% (c) 22% (d) 25%

132. The Reserve Bank of India started function from 1st of April of

133. Which one has not been correctly matched regarding time period of Indian Plans :

(a) Sixth Plan : 1980-85 (b) Severn Plan: 1985-90

(c) Eight Plan : 1990-95 (d) None of the

134. The Chelliah Committee formed in 1991 submitted recommendations on :

(a) Bank reforms (b) Tax reforms (c) Stock Exchange reforms (d) None of these

135. Highest source of tax collection in India is :

(a) Direct Tax (b) Indirect tax (c) Value Added Tax (d) None

136. Issues relating to money matters of India are published in the form of Monetary policies by the Reserve Bank of India ……. in a year ?

(a) Once (b) Twice (c) Thrice (d) None of hese

137. The New Industrial Policy of India was announced in :

138. Which one is not within the function of the Reserve Bank of India ?

(a) Paper currency issue (b) Banker to the Government

139. Which one is not within the Quantitative Credit Control measures of the Reserve Bank of India ?

(a) Bank Rate (b) Open Market (c) Credit Rationing (d) Variable Reserve Ratio

140. The system of imposition of Income tax in India is :

(a) Proportional (b) Progressive (c) Regressive (d) None of these

141. The Union Budget of India generally presented in the Parliament in :

(a) February (b) March (c) April (d) None of these

142. In which position the outcome of foreign trade of India is generally found :

(a) Balanced (b) Surplus (c) Deficit (d) None

143. Which one has not been correctly matched regarding establishment time :

(a) NABARD : 1982 (b) SIDBI : 1990 (c) UTI : 1963 (d) IDBI : 1978

144. In which year the Insdustrial Development Bank of India (IDBI) set up :

145. In which year ‘Sampporna Gramin Rozgar Yojana’ (SGRY) was started in India :

146. What was the volume of yearly production of food grains in India in the initial period of the 10th Five Year plan (in million tones) :

(a) 180 (b) 190 (c) 200 (d) 210

147. Which one was the highest source of export earning in the initial period of the 10th Plan (2002-2007) ?

(a) Gems & Jewellery (b) Textiles (c) Engineering goods (d) Chemicals

148. In India highest savings fund remained created by :

(a) Household sector (b) Corporate sector (c) Public Sector (d) None of these

149. In the present Indian societies the percentage of children remaining upto 6 years among the total population remained around : (as in 2001 census) :

(a) 10% (b) 15% (c) 20% (d) 25%

150. By how much times population of India increased in India since 1991 census :

(a) 2 times (b) 3 times (c) 4 times (5) 5 tiim

151. Minimum percentage of total male adult persons of an urban area remaining engaged in non agricultural activities should be :

(a) 50 (b) 60 (c) 75 (d) 90

152. In the census of 1991 India had 23 mega cities each havingat least 10 lakh people. In 2001 census the inumber of mega cities increased to :

(a) 28 (b) 31 (c) 35 (d) 41

153. Which State has got highest percentage of urban people in 2001 census ?

(a) Maharashtra (b) Punjab (c) Kerala (d) Tamil Nadu

154. Indian State having lowest percentage of people living below poverty line on the basis of 2001 census report was :

(a) Kerala (b) Gujarat (c) Punjab (d) Karnataka

155. Around what percentage of total people of India was found as working people or productive consumers on the basis of 2001 census report ?

(a) 30 (b) 35 (c) 40 (d) 45

156. Indian State having highest rank in Human Development Index (HDI) In 2001 census was :

(a) Haryana (b) Gujrat (c) Punjab (d) Kerala

157. The greatest achievement of the Five Year Plans of India remained :

(a) Economic Security (b) Employment Security (c) Food security (d) Eradication of poverty

158. The area of highest priority from the Public Sector during the 9th plan period was :

(a) Industries (b) Power (c) Social services (d) Telecommunication

159. In which year the Industrial Policy Resolution was announced by the Union Goverment of India ?

160. Dr. R. K. Hazari Commission submitted recommendations on issues relating to :

(a) Agricultural policies (b) Industrial licensing policies (c) Fiscal policies (d) Banking policies

161. Public Sector Undertaking of India having highest turnover is

(a) Indian Oil Corporation (b) Food Corporation of India

162. Which one was not the objective of the organisation of Public Sector units in India :

(a) Higher economic development (b) Creation of employment opportunities

(c) Earning of maximum possible profit (d) Promote balanced regional growth

163. In which year the Intergrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP) was launched ?

164. The Union Government of India introduced Economic planning system on the basis of the planning system of :

(a) USA (b) Soviet Union (c) China (d) Germany

165. Indian planning system was found remained biased towards the :

(a) Mohalanobis Mondel (b) Gandhian model (c) Keynes model (d) Marshallian model

166. The population of India increased rapidly mainly for :

(a) High birth rate (b) Immigration from outside (c) Decresing death rate (d) Absence of famines

167. Which sector may be found to have higher share in relation to the other towards the National Income of India in recent time :

(a) Primary (b) Secondary (c) Tertiary (d) None of these

168. Trend of economic development of an economy should be messured by evaluating :

(a) National income (b) Per capita money income

(c) Per capital real income (d) Position of global trade.

169. The most important agricultural product exported from India remained :

(a) Jute (b) Coffee (c) Tea (d) Wheat

170. Rural economy of India is found to suffer from :

(a) Voluntary unemployment (b) Disguised unemployment

171. Which one should considered within basic industry :

(a) Textiles (b) Chemicals (c) Iron (d) Cement

172. In which side the industrial sector of India showed good progress in recent decades ?

(a) Producers goods (b) Consumer durables (c) Wage goods (d) None of these

173. Which sector is desired to be developed by the Planners through utilisation of Public sector fund in recent years ?

(a) Agriculture (b) Industries (c) Infrastructure (d) None of these

174. Major portion of the agricultural lands of India are found to remain under :

(a) Small holdings (b) Medium holding (c) Large holdings (d) None of these

175. What percentage of total land area of India is found to remain within the Urban centres ?

(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 15 (d) 20

176. In India the sugar industries are found to remain located near the :

(a) Market (b) Source of raw materials (c) source of labour force (d) None of these

177. Which tax is not collected by the Union Government of India :

(a) Income tax (b) Sales tax (c) Corporation tax (d) Excise tax

178. Continent having highest transaction with India in global trade is :

(a) Asia (b) Europe (c) North America (d) None of these

179. Continuing deficit in the balance of payment position of India in global trade may be considered as :

(a) Unproductive deficit (b) Development deficit (c) Consumption deficit (d) Wasting deficit

180. In the supply of which items the Union Government of India is found to enjoy almost monopoly position :

(a) Petroleum oil (b) Defence equipments (c) Steel products (d) None

181. A single country remaining as the largest trade partner of India is in :

(a)Asia (b) Europe (c) North America (d) South America

182. The inflationary trend of India is based on :

(a) Demand pull (b) Cost push (c) Both demand pull and cost push (d) None of these

183. In which mineral India is found to have deficient position in local production :

(a) Iron Ore (b) Mica (c) Manganese (d) Tin

184. In India poverty of people is generally measures in relation to :

(a) food consumption (b) calorie intake (c) Housing and clothing (d) All of these

185. The ‘SEBI’ is found to have control over Indian :

(a) Banks (b) Stock Exchanges (c) Wholesale trade (d) None

186. The rate at which the Reserve Bank of India discount Bills of Exchanges of the Commercial Banks is known as :

(a) Interest rate (b) Bank rate (c) Discount rate (d) None of these

187. In which year the life Insurance Companies were nationalised in India :

188. The functions relating to ‘Clearing House’ for the Indian Banks are done by :

(a) Bureau of Bank (b) Reserve Bank (c) Finance Ministry (d) None of these

189. In India lowest volume of tax is received from :

(a) Excise duties (b) Agricultural tax (c) Income tax (d) Corporation tax

190. The Indian economy may be considered as a :

(a) Food surplus economy (b) Trade surplus economy

(c) Labour surplus economy (d) Production surplus economy

191. Foreign Exchange of highest value in terms of Indian rupee is

(a) American dollar (b) British Sterling (c) Russian Rouble (d) Japanese Yen

192. In India companies are required to pay Corporation tax on their :

(a) Production (b) Sales (c) Income (d) Investment

193. Chief Ministers of the Indian States are associated as members with :

(a) Planning Commission (b) Finance Commission

(c) National Development council (d) None of these

194. Who was chosen as the Chairman of the 12th Finance Commission of India :

(a) M. S. Aluwalia (b) C. Rangarajan (c) Bimal Jalan (d) None

195. In which case India is not the biggest producer in the world :

(a) Banana (b) Onion (c) ground-nut (d) rice

196. West Bengal has an Export Processing zone at :

(a) Haldia (b) Durgapur (c) Falta (d) None of these

197. Indian State having highest production of Cardamon is :

(a) Kerala (b) Sikkim (c) Madhya pradesh (d) Jammu & Kashmir

198. In 1991 census India had 927 females per 1000 males, such sex ratio in 2001 census remained :

(a) 929 females (b) 931 females (c) 933 females (d) 935 females

199. In which area no subsidy is given by the Union Government of India ?

(a) Foods (b) Fertilizer (c) Diesel (d) Cooking gas

200. For which item import expenditure became reduced for India with passge of time :

(a) Chemicals (b) Machines (c) Foods (d) Fuels

***

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MCQ on Indian Polity and Economy for WBCS/SSC/Misc Competetive Exams

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MCQ on Indian Polity and Economy for WBCS/SSC/Misc Competetive Exams/etc - I

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MCQ on Indian Polity and Economy for WBCS/SSC/Misc Competetive Exams

1. In which year Constituent Assembly was formed in India ?

2. In which year Indian Independence Act was passed ?

3. Who, among the following was the ‘Father of the Indian Constitution’ ?

(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (c) Mr. J. L. Nehru (d) None of these

4. In which year Indian Constitution was adopted by the Constituent Assembly ?

5. The Preamble of the original Indian Constitution contained :

(a) Sovereign Socialist Republic (b) Sovereign Democratic Republic

6. Within which article(s) The Preamble of Indian Constitutionhas been discussed ?

(a) Article 1 (b) Article 1-2 (c) Article 1-3 (d) None

7. On the basis of which Article new State can be created in India ?

(a) Article 1 (b) Article 3 (c) Art. 5 (d) None of these

8. Who, among the following is not associated with Parliament ?

(a) Lok Sabha members (b) Rajya Sabha members

9. The idea of incorporating the Chapter of Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution has been borrowed from :

(a) American Constitution (b) British Constitution (c) Soviet Constitution (d) Irish Constitution

10. On the basis of Constitution the Ultimate Source of power in India is :

(a) Parliament (b) Union Government (c) People (d) None

11. On the basis of Constitution, India has been declared as a :

(a) Federal Country (b) Quasi-Federal Country (c) Unitary Country (d) Union of States

12. How many types of Fundamental Rights were included in the original Constitution of India ?

(a) Eight (b) Seven (c) Six (d) None of these

13. Which one of the following rights is considered most important for the Indians ?

(a) Right to Equality (b) Right to Freedom (c) Right to Constitutional Remedies (d) None of these

14. Which chapter was incorporated in the Indian Constitution through Amendment ?

(a) Fundamental Rights (b) Fundamental Duties

15. Which one of the following is justiciable : (in Court of Law)

(a) Fundamental Rights (b) Preamble (c) Directive Principles (d) None of these

16. Which is against federal feature in the Indian constitution ?

(a) Existence of Union and State Governments

(b) Existence of a written Constitution

(c) Provision to have Single citizenship norm for people

(d) Universal adult Franchise to form Union/State Governments.

17. Which one of the following parts of Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Rights enjoyable by Indian citizens ?

(a) Part II (b) Part III (c) Part IV (d) Part IVA

18. Which Article has stated Equality before law for all the citizens of India ?

(a) Article 14 (b) Article 17 (c) Article 19 (d) Article 22

19. The word ‘State’ on the basis of Indian Constitution refers to the territory controlled by :

(a) The Union Government (b) State Government

(c) Either or both Union and State Governments (d) None

20. Which one of the following Chapters of Indian Constitution has been considered as ’ Soul of the Constitution’ by experts :

(a) Preamble (b) Directive Principles (c) Fundamental Rights (d) None of these

21. Which one of the following authorities may not remain associated with the Creation of new State(s) in India ?

(a) President of India (b) Lok Sabha (c) Rajya Sabha

(d) Bidhan Sabha of the concerned State(s) from which new state is to be created by altering the boundaries

22. Which one of the following issues has not been directed to be materialized in the Directive Principles of State Policy ?

(a) Organization of Village Panchayets

(b) Uniform Civil Code for the citizens of India

(d) Development of scientific temper and humanism among the citizens of India.

23. What is the minimum age to become President of India

(a) 10 Years (b) 35 Years (c) 40 Years (d) 45 years None of these, (b) 35 Years

24. President of India is elected by :

(a) Members of Parliament

(b) Elected Members of the Parliament

(c) Elected members of the Parliament and Elected members of the Stale Legislatures

(d) None of these

25. What may be maximum number of nominated members in Parliament ?

(a) 2 (b) 10 (c) 14 (d) 22

26. Vice President of India elected by :

(a) Members of the Parliament (b) Members of the Parliament and State Legislature

27. The Chief function of the Vice President of India is to :

(a) Assist the President (b) Work as the Chairman of Rajya Sabha

28. The other name of Rajya Sabha is not :

(a) Second Chamber (b) Upper Chamber (c) House of the Elders (d) Final Chamber

29. What should be the minimum age to become a Rajya Sabha member ?

(a) 25 Years (b) 30 Years (c) 35 Years (d) None

30. What is the minimum age for members of Lok Sabha (House of people) :

(a) 20 Years (b) 25 years (c) 30 years (d) None

31. The term of Office of a President of India is five years from :

(a) Day of election (b) Day of publication of election result

(c) Day of taking oath of office (d) None of these

32. What can be the maximum tenure of a particular Lok Sabha ?

(a) 5 years (b) 6 years (c) 7 years (d) None of these

33. For what period a member of Council of State is elected ?

(a) 5 years (b) 6 years (c) 7 years (d) None of these

34. Who is entitled to dissolve the House of People ?

(a) President of India (b) Union Council of Ministers

35. What can be the maximum number of the Parliament ?

(a) 500 (b) 600 (c) 700 (d) 800

36. A President willing to resign will have to send Letter of resignation to the :

(a) Vice President (b) Prime Minister (c) Chief Justice (d) None

37. Who, among the following, is not a member of the Parliament ?

(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha (b) Chairman of Rajya Sabha

38. Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution has stated that ‘There shall be a Vice-President of India’ ?

(a) Article 52 (b) Article 63 (c) Article 64 (d) Article 74

39. Who may hold office without being elected ?

(a) President (b) Vice-President (c) Prime Minister (d) None

40. From the end of a session of Parliament the next session is to be arranged within a period of :

(a) 3 months (b) 4 months (c) 5 months (d) 6 months

41. Who is entitled to summon or prorogue session of Parliament :

(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman of Rajya Sabha (b) The President of India

42. The person entitled to work as the Chairman of a Joint Session of Parliament is :

(a) The President (b) The Prime Minister

(c) The Speaker of Lok Sabha (d) The Chairman of Rajya Sabha

43. The salaries and perquisites of the President of India is determined by the :

(a) Union Cabinet (b) Union Council of Ministers (c) Parliament (d) Supreme Court of India

44. Any dispute regarding the election of President of India is decided by :

(a) The Parliament (b) The Supreme Court (c) Any High Court (d) Delhi High Court

45. Within what time period the Rajya Sabha is to decide on a Money Bill ?

(a) Two weeks (b) one month (c) 2 months (d) None

46. A Non-Money Bill is required to be initiated / introduced in :

(a) Lok Sabha (b) Rajya Sabha (c) Either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha (d) None of these

47. Who is entitled to decide whether a Bill is Money Bill or not ?

(a) Union Cabinet (b) Finance Minister (c) Speaker of Lok Sabha (d) Any High Court

48. A Bill passed by the Parliament become a Law only after having assent from the :

(a) Union Law Minister (b) Chief Justice of India

(c) President of India (d) Members of the Union Cabinet

49. Proceedings in either House of the Parliament may be inquired by :

(a) Supreme Court (b) Delhi High Court (c) Any High Court (d) None of these

50. An Ordinance promulgated by President remains in force upto :

(a) Three months (b) Six months (c) One year (d) None

51. A member of the Parliament may deliver his/her speech in the House in :

(a) Either English or Hindi (b) Any of the 22 Languages listed in the 8th Schedule of Indian Constitution

52. The age of retirement of a Supreme Court Judge is :

(a) 60 years (b) 62 years (c) 65 years (d) 70 years

53. A Judge of the Supreme Court may be removed by the :

(a) President (b) Union Cabinet (c) Parliament (d) None

54. How many maximum number of States may remain within the legal jurisdiction of a Particular High Court ?

(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) None of these

55. How many maximum number of Ad-hoc Judges may be appointed ?

(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 15 (d) None of these

56. Which one of the following types of disputes can not be initiated in the Supreme Court of India for adjudication ?

(a) Dispute between Union Government and any State

(b) Dispute between two States or among a number of States

(c) Dispute between a State and an ordinary citizen

(d) All the above types of cases may be filed in Supreme Court

57. Under which Article Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed ?

(a) Article 124 (b) Article 141 (c) Article 148 (d) Article 153

58. Members of Council of Ministers of a State is appointed by :

(a) Chief Minister (b) Governor (c) Chief Justice of High Court of the State (d) None of these.

59. For what maximum period a non member of State Legislature is entitled to work as a member of Council of Minister of a State ? :

(a) 3 Months (b) 6 months (c) 1 year (d) None

60. Whal may be the maximum number of Seats in the Bidhan Sabha of a State of India ?

(a) 200 (b) 300 (c) 400 (d) 500

61. Which one of the following organizations may take final decision to abolish Legislative Council of a State ?

(a) Governor of the State (b) Joint session of Bidhan Sabha and Bidhan Parisad of the State

62. Which one of the following Union Territories of India has got a Legislative Assembly ?

(a) Andaman & Nicobar Islands (b) Pondocherry (c) Chandigarh (d) None of these

63. What is the minimum and maximum range of population requirement for the creation of a State in India ?

(a) 5 lakh - 5 Crore (b) 5 lakh - 10 crore (c) 10 lakh - 15 crore (d) None of these.

64. Maximum Life Span of a Legislative Assembly may be :

(a) 5 years (b) 6 years (c) 7 years (d) None of these

65. Governor of a State is not required to address the members of State Legislature at the commencement of session at :

(a) The first session of each general election for the State (b) The first session of each year

(c) Each Monsoon Session (d) None of these

66. Advocate General of a State is appointed by the :

(a) Law Minister of the State (b) Chief Minister of the Slate

(c) Governor of the State (d) President of India

67. The Official language of a High Court of an Indian State is :

(a) English only (b) Both English and Hindi

68. District Judges of a State of India are appointed by the :

(a) Chief Justice of the concerned High Court (b) Governor of the concerned State

69. Who among the following, is not entitled to become appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court of India ?

(a) Persons having the experience of at least 5 years as a Judge of one or more High Courts

(b) Person having experience of 10 year as advocate of one or more High Courts

(d) An efficient Officer of the Law Ministry of India

70. Who, among the following is not entitled to become appointed as a judge of a High Court in India ?

(a) Person having at least 10 years experience as Judicial Officer in India

(b) Person having at least 10 years experience as Advocate in one or more High Court

(c) A ‘Distinguished Jurist’ in the opinion of the Governor of the State

(d) None

71. Under which Article of the Constitution a High Court of India is empowered to issue writs in the form of orders/directions upon the Governmental authorities of Union / State Government ?

(a) Article 214 (b) Article 226 (c) Article 239 (d) None of these

72. Who, among the following is the Chief Executive of the Union Territories of India ?

(a) Prime Minister (b) President (c) Lt. Governor (d) None

73. The areas of activities which have not been kept listed in Union List, State List or Concurrent List are done by :

(a) Union Government (b) State Governments

74. Consolidated Fund and Contingency Fund of the Union Government of India are controlled by the :

(a) The President (b) The Prime Minister (c) Union Finance Minister (d) Reserve Bank of India

75. Salaries of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are disbursed from :

(a) Consolidated Fund (b) Contingency Fund (c) General Fund (d) Reserve Fund.

76. For what period a Finance Commission of India is constituted ?

(a) 4 years (b) 5 years (c) 6 years (d) None

77. The members of a Joint Public Service Commission, constituted to recruit employees for a number of States are appointed by

(a) The Prime Minister (b) The President

78. Which Election is not conducted by the Election Commission of India ?

(a) President & Vice- President (b) Parliament

79. For what period an Election Commissioner is appointed ?

(a) 5 years (b) 6 years (c) 10 years (d) None of these

80. On the basis of which Article of the Constitution, the Election Commission of India is/was constituted ?

(a) Article 315 (b) Article 324 (c) Article 343 (d) None of These

81. Who is the final authority to impose emergency in India ?

(a) The President (b) The Prime Minister (c) The Parliament (d) The Union Council of Ministers

82. Which one of the following Articles has not been imposed in India during the past period since Independence ?

(a) Article 352 (b) Article 356 (c) Article 360 (d) None of these

83. During the period of imposition of articles the salaries and privileges of Government employees can be reduced by the Government :

(a) Article 352 (b) Article 360 (c) Article 368 (d) None

84. Article 352 can be imposed only when India or part of India a situation of :

(a) War or external aggression (b) Armed rebellion

(d) During all the above noted situations.

85. Article 356 imposed in a State remains in force for a maximum period of …….. without the approval of the Parliament ?

(a) One month (b) Two months (c) Six months (d) None of these

86. Under which Article of the Constitution, the Union Government has got a duty to protect any State against external aggression and internal disturbances ?

(a) Article 353 (b) Article 355 (c) Article 357 (d) Article 358

87. The procedure of Amendment of Indian Constitution may be considered as :

(a) Fully rigid (b) Fully flexible (c) Partly rigid and partly flexible (d) None of these

88. How many States of India has got separate Constitution

(a) One (b) Three (c) Five (d) None of these

89. Around how many Articles are there in the Constitution of India :

(a) 200 (b)300 (c) 400 (d) 500

90. How many Schedules were there in the Original Indian Constitution as was enforced in 1950 ?

(a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 10 (d) None of these

91. Which one of the following has not been correctly matched ?

(a) 1st Schedule : Territorial boundaries of States & U.Ts.

(b) 2nd Schedule : Salaries etc. of High Officials of India

(d) 4th Schedule : Allocation of seats for States in Lok Sabha

92. Which one of the following Schedules contains Union List, State List and Concurrent List relating to areas of powers enjoyable by the Union Government and State Governments ?

(a) 5th Schedule (b) 6th Schedule (c) 7th Schedule (d) 8th Schedule

93. What portion, in minimum can legally form a new group through defection in any House of Parliament/State Legislature from the total number of members belonging to a Political party :

(a) One-third (b) half (c) two-thirds (d) None of these

94. Which one of the following Constitutional Amendment Act has been considered as ‘Mini Constitution’ by the critics ?

(a) 42nd (b) 44th (c) 61st (d) None of these.

95. Which one of the following languages has been placed under 8th Schedule of the Indian Constitution ?

(a) English (b) Arabic (c) Sindhi (d) Pali

96. Which one of the following areas of activities is not within the List - I i.e. The Union List ?

(a) Post Office Savings Bank (b) Stock Exchanges (c) Sea fishing (d) Public Health and sanitation.

97. Protection of wild animals and birds is within :

(a) List - I (b) List - II (c) List - III (d) None of these

98. Education of higher nature, Population & Family Planning, Civil Procedure are within :

(a) List - I (b) List - II (c) List - III (d) None of these

99. Who is entitled to declare War and Peace in India ?

(a) The President (b) The Prime Minister (c) Chiefs of Armed Forces (d) Defence Minister of India

100. The Union Council of Ministers of India is responsible for its activities to the :

(a) Lok Sabha (b) Rajya Sabha (c) Parliament (d) President

101. Which schedule has got names of Indian States and Union Territories ?

(a) First (b) Second (c) Third (d) None of these

102. In which part of the Indian Constitution ‘Citizenship’ issues are ?

(a) First (b) Second (c) Third (d) None

103. By which Article the makers of Indian constitution delivered the power to the Parliament to regulate rights of Indian citizenshlp ?

(a) Article 10 (b) Article 11 (c) Article 12 (d) None of these

104. Which one has not been correctly matched regarding Articles of Constitution :

(a) Equality before Law : Article 14 (b) Abolition of Untouchability : Article 16

105. By which Article Citizens of India have been given freedom to manage religious afairs ?

(a) Article 23 (b) Article 24 (c) Article 25 (d) Article 26

106. Which one is not within the Directive Principles of State Policy ?

(a) Organisation of Village Panchayats (b) Protection of integrity of India

107. How many heads of Fundamental duties for Indin citizens have been kept in Indian Constitution ?

(a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 14

108. Which Article has stated that There shall be a President ol India ?

(a) Article 52 (b) Article 54 (c) Article 56 (d) None of these

109. How many maximum terms a particular person may be elected as the President of India ?

(a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) None

110. Impeachment Motion against the President is to be passed in each House of the Parliament of India by :

(a) Simple majority number of members of the House

(b) Two thirds majority of the voting members

(c) Two-thirds majority ol the total members

(d) Three-fourths majority of voting members

111. On the basis of latest rule the number of members of the Union Council of Ministers of India may be maximum :

(a) 10% of total numbers of Parliament

(b) 15% of total numbei of members of the Parliament

(d) 15% of total members of the Lok Sabh

112. Within which Article it has been stated that Union Council of Ministers is to aid and advise the President of India ?

(a) Article 74 (b) Article 76 (c) Article 78 (d) None of these

113. The President of India has got the constitutional obligation to assent any Proposal forwarded by the Union Council of Minister or Union Cabinet for the :

(a) First time (b) Second time (c) Third time (d) None of these

114. On the basis of which Article the Attorney General of India is appointed by the President of India ?

(a) Article 76 (b) Article 80 (c) Article 84 (d) None of these

115. What may be the maximum number of elected members in the Rajya Sabha on the basis of provision of Constitution of India ?

(a) 250 (b) 238 (c) 232 (d) None of these

116. Minimum number of members of the Council of State (Rajya Sabha) from an Indian State may be :

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) None

117. In India minimum number of session of Parliament in a year may be :

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

118. Who is the entitled to address or to take part in the proceeding in both the Houses of Parliament ?

(a) Chief Election Commissioner (b) Advocate General

(c) Attorney General (d) Comptroller & Auditor General

119. Speaker of the Lok Sabha willing to resign the post is to the resignation letter to the ?

(a) President of India (b) Prime Minister of India

120. Who among the following, should have qualification to become appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court of India ?

(a) Advocate General (b) Attorney General (c) Union Law Minister (d) None of these

121. An Impeachment proceeding is to be passed to remove :

(a) Advocate General (b) Attorney General (c) Comptroller & Auditor General (d) None of these

122. Under which Article a Governor is to remain for each State of India :

(a) Article 148 (b) Article 153 (c) Article l57 (d) None of these

123. Which organisation is entitled to inquire into the proceeding of a State Legislature ?

(a) High Court (b) Supreme Court (c) Parliament (d) None

124. Which authority is entitled to allow creation of Legislature for Union Territories of India ?

(a) The President (b) The Union Council of Ministers (c) The Parliament (d) None of these

125. On the basis of provision of which Article of the constitution the States of India have got obligation to frame laws in compliance with the laws enacted by the Parliament of India ?

(a) Article 226 (b) Article 236 (c) Article 246 (d) Article 256

126. On the basis of which Article the Finance Commission of India is constituted ?

(a) Article 280 (b) Article 282 (c) Article 283 (d) Nono

127. On the basis of Article 300, an Indian citizen is entitled to file suit against :

(a) The President of India (b) The Prime Minister o| India

(c) The Union of India (d) The Union Cabinet of India

128. A member of Union Public Service Commission of India is appointed by the President of India for a period of :

(a) 4 years (b) 5 years (c) 6 years (d) None of these

129. For how many terms a person may be appointed as a member of the Union Public Service Commission or a State Public Service Commission :

(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) None

130. Expenses in the form of salaries of members of the Public Service Commission and others are payable from the :

(a) General fund (b) Consolidated fund (c) Contingency fund (d) None of these

131. On the basis of which Article the Election Commission of India is constituted ?

(a) Article 324 (b) Article 343 (c) Article 344 (d) None of these

132. Which Article of the Constitution of India is associated with the declaration of the official language of the Union of India ?

(a) Article 342 (b) Article 343 (c) Article 344 (d) None of these

133. Which Article has declared that English would remain as Ianguage to be used in Supreme Court and High Courts of India ?

(a) Article 348 (b) Article 350 (c) Article 351 (d) None of these

134. Without approval of the Parliament the National Emergency under Article 352 may remain enforced for a maximum period of

(a) 1 month (b) 2 months (c) 3 months (d) 6 months

135. Without approval of the Parliament the Presidential rule imposed in a State under Article 356 remain enforced for a maximum period of :

(a) 1 mouth (b) 2 months (c) 3 months (d) None of these

136. Provisions for administration of Scheduled Areas have been within :

(a) 4th schedule (b) 5th schedule (c) 6th schedule (d) None

137. Which one is not within the State List :

(a) Local Government (b) Audit account of States (c) sanitation (d) Prisons

138. Which one is not within Concurrent list ?

(a) Criminal procedure (b) Professional tax (c) Higher education (d) Newspapers

139. Decision regarding the number of judges for a High court is finally taken by :

(a) The Chief Justice of India (b) The President of India

140. By which Constitutional Amendment ‘Right to Property’ was declared as a legal right in India ?

(a) 42nd (b) 43rd (c) 44th (d) None of these

141. In which year first General election was started in India ?

142. Who took pioneering steps to integrate several hundred Native States of the British period within the Indian Union ?

(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (b) C. Rajagopalachari (c) Sardar Ballavbhai Patel (d) None of these

143. In which year Panchsheel Agreement was signed ?

144. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?

(a) Life Insurance Business Nationalization : 1956

(b) State Reorganization Act of India introduced : 1957

(d) Portuguese enclaves of Goa etc. occupied by India : 1961

145. In which year Lai Bahadur Shastri become Prime Minister of India ?

146. In which year Mrs. Indira Gandhi emerged as the Prime Minister of India ?

147. Who worked as the Second President of Union of India ?

(a) S. Radhakrishnan (b) Dr. Zakir Hossain (c) V.V. Giri (d) None of these

148. In which year of the following India did not face war with Pakistan

149. How many private banks were nationalized in First Phase ?

(a) 6 (b) 10 (c) 14 (d) None of these

150. In which year National Emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution was promalgated in India by the Govt. of PM Mrs. Indira Gandhi ?

151. In which year Mr. Morerji Desai became Prime Minister of India ?

152. Around what percentage of Indian people belong to SC/ST group ?

(a) 22% (b) 26% (c) 35% (d) 40%

153. Local Self-Government system in villages originated during ?

(a) Vedic period (b) Muslim Period (c) British Period (d) Post independent period.

154. The British rulers took steps to develop :

(a) Municipalities (b) Town Corporation (c) District Councils (d) None of these

155. Which one of the following Committees advocated the formation of Village Self Government system in rural India ?

(a) B. R. Mehta Committee (b) Mondal Commission (c) Sarkaria Commission (d) None of these.

156. Generally how many tiers are there in the existing Panchayet system in major number of States of India ?

(a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) None of these

157. Who among the following are not associated with a Panchayet Samity (constituted for an area of a block within a District) ?

(a) Chairman of all the village Panchaycts of the concerned area

(b) Block Development Officer of the concerned area

(c) MLA and MP of the concerned area

(d) None of these

158. By which Amendment of the Constitution one-third of total seats in all the Panchayets was made reserved for women ?

(a) 73rd (b) 74th (c) 75th (d) None of these

159. Which one of the following Schedules of the Indian Constitution contains the area of activities of Panchayets ?

(a) 9th (b) 11th (c) 12th (d) None of these

160. How many types of Municipalities have been arranged for urban areas of India ?

(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) None of these

161. Through which one of the following Articles the Governmental authorities have been directed to organise Village Panchayets ?

(a) Article 40 (b) Article 45 (c) Article 48 (d) None

162. Who, among the following, strongly advocated and urged the British rulers of India to introduce Panchayets in rural areas ?

(a) Motilal Nehru (b) M. K. Gandhi (c) Binobha Bhave (d) None of these

163. Which one of the following States did not organise Village Panchayets at an early stage in the independent India ?

(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Rajasthan (c) Bihar (d) None

164. Who are associated with ‘Gram Sabha’ in a Panchayet area ?

(a) All the members of the Panchayet (b) All the adult persons of the area

165. From which one of the following sources a Panchayet does not receive financial resources ?

(a) Taxes and fees (b) Financial aid from Union Government

166. For what period of time a Panchayet or Municipal Committee are organised ?

(a) 5 years (b) 6 years (c) 10 years (d) None

167. Panchayet/Municipal Elections are organised by :

(a) Election Commission (b) State Government (c) Union Government (d) None of these

168. Any State having population below …….. has been kept outside the obligation to organise 3-tier Panchayet System

(a) 10 lakh (b) 20 lakh (c) 50 lakh (d) None of these

169. Which one of the following Part of the Indian Constitution deals with 3 tier Panchayet system in India ?

(a) Part VIII (b) Part IX (c) Part X (d) None of these

170. Which one of the following is not generally found in a vilIage Panchayet ?

(a) Acute shortage of financial resources

(b) Tight control by the State Government

(d) Cordial relations between Panchayet Officials and people.

171. How many tiers in Panchayet System was proposed by Ashok Mehta Committee which submitted its report in 1978 on the ways to improve functions of Panchayet system ?

(a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) None of these

172. Block Development Officer (BDO), who works as the Chief person tp regulate the activities of Panchayet Samity is generally :

(a) Elected by voters (b) Deputed by State Government

173. Which one of the following types of cases can be decided by Panchayet of rural areas ?

(a) Civil (b) Criminal (c) Income Tax (d) None of these

174. In which year Indian Satellite ‘Aryabhatta’ was launched ?

175. In which year India tested first Nuclear Bomb ?

176. In which year Sikkim joined as a State of Indian Union ?

177. In which year Sqn. Ldr. Rakesh Sharma travelled in Space ?

178. In which year first Indian woman scaled Mount Everest ?

179. Which State was associated with ‘Operation Blue Star’ ?

(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Punjab (c) Gujrat (d) None of these

180. Which one of the following has not been correctly matched ?

(a) Mrs. Indira Gandhi was assassinated in Delhi in 1984

(b) Union Carbide Gas tragedy of Bhopal occurred in 1985

(d) Air India Plane with 329 persons crashed on Atlantic in 1985

181. In which year Mr. Rajiv Gandhi (PM) visited China ?

182. Which one of the following has not been correctly matched ?

(a) Rajiv Gandhi was assassinated in Sri Perumbudur in 1991

(b) Disputed structure of Ayodhya demolished in 1992

(c) Association of South Asian Countries formed in 1988

(d) Eighth Five Year Plan of India was launched in 1992

183. Which State was associated with ‘Operation Rhino’ ?

(a) Punjab (b) Tripura (c) Assam (d) None

184. Which one of the following has not been correctly matched ?

(a) The highest rank of Indian Air Force is Air Chief Marshal

(b) The Head Quarter of Indian Navy is located in New Delhi

(d) Agni Missile has got longest range being more than 2000 kms.

185. Which one of the following has not been correctly matched ?

(a) Arjun : Main Battle Tank (b) Lakshya : Pilotless Jet Plane

(d) Trishul : A short range surface-to-surface missile

186. Which one of the following Satellites were launched from Indian Satellite Station of Sriharikota successfully ?

(a) IRS (b) INSAT (c) Bhaskara (d) None of these

187. The organisation ‘ISRO’ is associated with the issues of :

(a) Defence (b) Space (c) Economy (d) Agriculture

188. Which one of the following refers to India made Satellites :

(a) INSAT (b) PSLV (c) GSLV (d) DRDO

189. In which State Sriharikota Rocket Launching Station is located ?

(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Andhra Pradesh (c) Orissa (d) None

190. Around what percent of Indian people were literate on the basis of 1991 Census report :

(a) 30% (b) 40% (c) 50% (d) 60%

191. Which one of the following has not been correctly matched ?

(a) Operation Flood : Flood Control

(b) Blue Revolution : fish production/catch development

(d) Green Revolution : development in agricultural production

192. How many Universities are there in India (approximately) :

(a) 150 (b) 200 (c) 250 (d) 400

193. How many Post Offices are there in India ?

(a) 50 thousand (b) 1 lakh (c) 1.5 lakh (d) 2 lakh

194. In which language highest number of daily newspaper are publiushed in India ?

(a) English (b) Hindi (c) Kannada (d) Malayalam

195. The smallest administrative unit of India in area is :

(a) Goa (b) Andamans (c) Lakshadweep (d) Pondicherry

196. Which one of the following is not the name of a News Agency ?

(a) PTI (b) UNI (c) UTI (d) None of these

197. In which year first feature film of India was released (silenl film) ?

198. In which year Radio Transmission started in India ?

199. Which one of the following has not been correctly matched ?

(a) Thakkar Commission : Assassination of Indira Gandhi

(b) Sarkaria Commission : Central State Relations

(d) Raja Cheliah Commission : Banking Reformation

200. The findings of which one of the following Commission helped to bring the fall of the Government led by Mr. I. K. Gujral :

(a) Mandal Commission (b) Jain Commission (c) Verma Commission (d) None of these

***

Book-page

WBCS

MCQ on Indian Polity and Economy for WBCS/SSC/Misc Competetive Exams

WBCS Prelims

MCQ on Geography of India with special reference to West Bengal for WBCS/SSC/Misc Competitive Exam/etc - II

administrator — Mon, 15 May 2017 09:59:18 +0000

MCQ on Geography of India with special reference to West Bengal for WBCS/SSC/Misc Competitive Exam/etc - II

1. ‘Tarai’ region of West Bengal is roughly :

(a) High land (b) Low land (c) Plain land (d) Alluvial land

2. Which city is known as the ‘Door towards Bhutan’ :

(a) Siliguri (b) Jalpaiguri (c) Darjeeling (d) None of these

3. Which one of the following National Highway has crossed Farakka Barrage ?

(a) NH 31 (b) NH 32 (c) NH 33 (d) NH 34

4. Which one of the following district has got Head Quarter in the name of the District ?

(a) Nadia (b) Birbhum (c) Hooghly (d) Bankura

5. Which one is not in the Northern side of West Bengal State ?

(a) Jaldhaka (b) Kaljani (c) Mahananda (d) Mayurakshi

6. Which one is of highest length :

(a) Teesta (b) Mahananda (c) Jaldhaka (d) Kansabati

7. Which one is not a Tidal river ?

(a) Icchamati (b) Vidyadhari (c) Kalindi (d) Jalangi

8. Tropic of cancer has not passed through any area of :

(a) Purulia (b) Nadia (c) Burdwan (d) Birbhum

9. The density of population per sq. km in Kolkata as per 2001 census is around :

(a) 25 thousund (b) 20 thousand (c) 15 thousand (d) 10 thousand

10. Literacy rate in West Bengal on the basis of 2001 census report is around :

(a) 65% (b) 67% (c) 69% (d) 71%

11. Region named ‘Diara’ is associated with the district of :

(a) Coochbehar (b) Murshidabad (c) Maldaha (d) None of these

12. Which one has not been correctly matched ?

(a) Burdwan : Coal (b) Purulia : Lime stone (c) Birbhum : China clay (d) Bankura : Manganese

13. Which one has not been correctly matched ?

(a) Burnpur: Iron & Steel (b) Rupnarayanpur : Electric/Telephone wire

14. Which one is the most important river of the ‘Rarr’ region of West Bengal ?

(a) Damodar (b) Ajay (c) Mayurakshi (d) None

15. The Head Quarter of the ‘Tiger Project’ of Sundarban region is located at :

(a) Canning (b) Fresherganj (c) Gosaba (d) Basanti

16. In which item West Bengal is not the biggest producer among the States of India :

(a) Rice (b) Jute (c) Tea (d) fish

17. Among the States of India the position of West Bengal in silk production :

(a) 1st (b) 2nd (c) 3rd (d) None of these

18. In which year the Metro Rail system of Kolkata was started to run :

19. In which district of West Bengal there is a Central University ?

(a) Kolkata (b) Birbhum (c) Midnapur (d) None of these

20. Around what percent of total rice is produced in West Bengal

(a) 10% (b) 12% (c) 15% (d) 18%

21. Which one is not the name of a Division of West Bengal ?

(a) Presidency (b) Burdwan (c) Maldaha (d) Jalpaiguri

22. On the basis of recommendation of the State Reorganisation Commission ol India a part of Purnea district of Bihar was added to the district of :

(a) Maldaha (b) Birbhum (c) Purulia (d) North Dinajpur

23. A part of Manbhum district was added to the district of :

(a) Purulia (b) Birbhum (c) Midnapore (d) None of these

24. For which fruit ‘Diara’ region of West Bengal is famous ?

(a) Banana (b) Pine apple (c) Mango (d) None of these

25. Which one is not an example of Torrential (fed by rain water) river ?

(a) Teesta (b) Subarnarekha (c) Vidyadhari (d) Matla

26. At present West Bengal has net sown area of around (in Lakh hectares) :

(a) 45 (b) 50 (c) 60 (d) 65

27. The most important cash crop of West Bengal is :

(a) jute (b) Tea (c) Tobacco (d) None of these

28. West Bengal district having highest production of Tobacco is

(a) Bardwan (b) Maldaha (c) Murshidabad (d) Coochbehar

29. Which one has not been correctly matched ?

(a) Jhalda of Purulia : Lime stone (b) Tamakhan of Bankura : Iron

30. Mohammed bazar of Birbhum is famous for :

(a) China clay (b) Lime stone (c) Dolomite (d) None of these

31. ‘Canada Dam’ is associated with the project named :

(a) Damodar (b) Kansabati (c) Mayurakshi (d) Jaldhaka

32. Total length of Metro Rail system of Kolkata is around :

(a) 14 kms (b) 16 kms (c) 18 kms (d) 20 kms

33. Total number of Railway station in the Metro Railway system of Kolkata is :

(a) 15 (b) 17 (c) 19 (d) 21

34. The length of Farakka barrage is :

(a) 1860 metre (b) 2035 metre (c) 2240 metre (d) 2410 metre

35. With which National High way the Grand Trunk Road is associated ?

(a) NH 2 (b) NH 5 (c) NH 6 (d) None of these

36. The height of ‘Biharinath Hill’ of Bribhum district is around :

(a) 450 metre (b) 440 metre (c) 420 metre (d) 380 metre

37. ‘Tilpara’ irrigation canal is in :

(a) Bardwan (b) Birbhum (c) Purulia (d) None of these

38. The irrigation canal of Damodar Vally Corporation (DVC) is in :

(a) Maldaha (b) Murshidabad (c) Burdwan (d) None of these

39. With which River Valley project Massanjore Dam is associated :

(a) Damodar (b) Mayurakshi (c) Farrakka (d) None of these

40. Average temperature required for proper production of jute is around (in Celsius) :

(a) 20° (b) 25° (c) 30° (d) 35°

41. Highest rice producing district of West Bengal is :

(a) Murshidabad (b) Maldaha (c) Burdwan (d) None of these

42. First Jute mill of India was set up in 1859 in :

(a) Naihati (b) Serampore (c) Kulti (d) Rishra

43. The Steel mill of Durgapur was set up in collaboration with :

(a) Russia (b) Germany (c) Britain (d) France

44. In West Bengal mining instruments are manufactured in :

(a) Asansol (b) Durgapur (c) Howrah (d) None of these

45. Among the Indian States the position of West Bengal in population is

(a) 4th (b) 5th (c) 6th (d) 7th

46. On the basis of 2001 census report population of Greater Kolkata is around :

(a) 122 lakh (b) 128 lakh (c) 132 lakh (d) 136 lakh

47. Around how many Jute mills are there in the Hooghly industrial area :

(a) 40 (b) 60 (c) 80 (d) 100

48. In Hooghly industrial area Heavy chemical factories are dominant at :

(a) Konnagar (b) Kamarhati (c) Rishra (d) Naihati

49. Which one of the following towns is closest to Bangladesh border ?

(a) Krishnanagar (b) Maldaha (c) Raiganj (d) Balurghat

50. Which one is the smallest district of West Bengal in area ?

(a) Hooghly (b) Howrah (c) South Dinajpur (d) None of these

51. The second largest city of West Bengal in population is :

(a) Durgapur (b) Maldaha (c) Howrah (d) None of these

52. Which one National Highway destination has not been correctly matched from Vehicle starting from Kolkata :

(a) NH 2 : Delhi (b) NH 5 : Chennai (c) NH 6 : Mumbai (d) NH 7 : Patna

53. ‘Rammam’ Hydro-electric project is associated with :

(a) Darjeeling (b) Jalpaiguri (c) Purulia (d) Bankura

54. Which type of soil is most suitable for tea production ?

(a) Podsol (b) Laterite (c) Alluvial (d) None of these

55. Most important river of plain region of the Northern part of West Bengal is :

(a) Subarnarekha (b) Mahananda (c) Torsa (d) None

56. ‘Atrai’ is a Tributary of river :

(a) Ganga (b) Bhagirathi (c) Padma (d) Jamuna

57. Total area of the Sundarban region is around :

(a) 7000 sq.km. (b) 9000 sq.km. (c) 110000 sq.km. (d) 13000 sq. km

58. Which one of the following rivers has entered into Orissa from West Bengal :

(a) Rupnarayan (b) Subarnarekha (c) Dwarakeshwar (d) None

59. The average yearly rainfall for total area of West Bengal is around :

(a) 125 cm. (b) 150 cm. (c) 175 cm. (d) 200 cm.

60. District having lowest rainfall in West Bengal is :

(a) Purulia (b) Bankura (c) Birbhum (d) None of these

61. Average rainfall in ‘Buxduars’ of Jalpaiguri, per annum is around :

(a) 350 cm. (b) 400 cm. (c) 450 cm. (d) 500 cm.

62. During winter season air blows over West Bengal from :

(a) North (b) North-east (c) North-west (d) South-west

63. Of the 4 official seasons of West Bengal the Summer period is :

(a) February - April (b) March - May (c) April - June (d) Noiu

64. ‘Tin Bigha’ area leased to Bengladesh for use is associated with :

(a) Nadia (b) South Dinajpur (c) Murshidabad (d) Coochbehar

65. In West Bengal ‘Water melon’ is mainly produced in :

(a) Burdwan (b) Coochbehar (c) South 24 Parganas (d) Purulia

66. On which river the Maithon Barrage has been constructed ?

(a) Barakar (b) Konar (c) Ajay (d) None of these

67. Yealy rice production in West Bengal is found to remain around (in million tons) :

(a) 11 (b) 13 (c) 15 (d) 17

68. Total wheat production in West Bengal per year is around (in million tons) :

(a) 1 ton (b) 2 tons (c) 3 tons (d) 4 tons

69. Jute Agricultural Research Institute is located at :

(a) Barasat (b) Javadpur (c) Barrackpore (d) Alipore

70. Sidrapong of Darjeeling had India’s first :

(a) Ply wood factory (b) Hydro power station (c) Saw Mill (d) None of these

71. Which one of the following district of West Bengal has got muslim people in majority :

(a) Maldaha (b) Nadia (c) Murshidabad (d) North Dinajpur

***

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WBCS

MCQ on Geography of India with special reference to West Bengal for WBCS/SSC/Misc Competitive Exam

Geography

MCQ on Geography of India with special reference to West Bengal for WBCS/SSC/Misc Competitive Exam/etc - I

administrator — Mon, 15 May 2017 07:04:46 +0000

MCQ on Geography of India with special reference to West Bengal for WBCS/SSC/Misc Competitive Exam/etc.

1. The area of land of India is approximately ………. sq. kms :

(a) 25 lakh (b) 28 lakh (c) 30 lakh (d) 33 lakh

2. The length of Indian soil from North to South is around :

(a) 1800 kms (b) 2200 kms (c) 2900 kms (d) 3200 kms

3. Which one of the following is border line between India and China ?

(a) Durand Line (b) Macmohan Line (c) Radcliffe Line (d) None

4. The length of India is latitude from South to North is around :

(a) 25° (b) 29° (c) 32° (d) None of these

5. Indian Standard Time is the local time of city of :

(a) Delhi (b) Allahabad (c) Lucknow (d) Patna.

6. In respect of 1ST the local time of the city of Calcutta is :

(a) The same (b) faster (c) slower (d) None of these

7. The difference in longitude between the Indian Standard Time and Pakistan Standard Time is :

(a) 7.5° (b) 15° (c) 22.5° (d) None of these

8. Which one of the following States of India receives Sunshine at the earliest ?

(a) West Bengal (b) Himachal Pradesh (c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) None of these

9. Which one of the following regions of India receives highest volume of rainfall every year on an average ?

(a) Eastern region (b) North-Eastern region (c) Northern Region (d) Western Region

10. Which one of the following States of India has got sea-port ?

(a) Rajasthan (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Gujarat (d) Bihar

11. Which one has got no border with foreign country ?

(a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Tripura (c) Gujarat (d) Orissa

12. The oldest mountain range of India is :

(a) Himalayas (b) Nilgiris (c) Aravallis (d) None of these

13. The biggest State of India in respect of land area is :

(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Rajasthan (d) None

14. Which one of the following States has got highest density of population on the basis of 1991 census report ?

(a) Kerala (b) West Bengal (c) Bihar (d) None of these

15. Which State has got borders with largest number of Indian States :

(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Bihar (d) None

16. Smallest unit of administration in India is (in Area) :

(n) Chandigarh (b) Daman & Diu (c) Lakshadweep (d) None

17. Which one of the following has not been correctly matched ?

(a) Garos : Meghalaya (b) Khonds : Orissa (c) Mundas : Bihar (d) Todas : Maharashtra

18. Which one of the following group live in Madhya Pradesh ?

(a) Jarawas (b) Kols (c) Lushais (d) Lepchas

19. In which State Corbett National Park is located ?

(a) Gujarat (b) Uttar Pradesh (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Uttaranchal State

20. Which one of following rivers has originated outside India

(a) Indus (b) Ganga (c) Cauvery (d) None of these

21. Which one of following has not outflowed in Bay of Bengal ?

(a) Brahmaputra (b) Cauvery (c) Narmada (d) None

22. Which one of the following has not outflowed in any ocean ?

(a) Krishna (b) Luni (c) Godavari (d) Sabarmati

23. The longest river of South Indian region is :

(a) Cauvery (b) Godavari (c) Krishna (d) Mahanadi

24. The rivers of South India are generally :

(a) snow-fed (b) rain-fed (c) both rain & snow fed (d) None

25. What is the approximate length of the Ganga river ?

(a) 1500 kms (b) 2000 kms (c) 2500 kms (d) 3000 kms

26. What type of soil is found in maximum percentage in India ?

(a) Alluvial (b) Regur (c) Red Soil (d) Sandi soil

27. Which one of the following lines has passed through India ?

(a) The Equator (b) Tropic of Cancer (c) Tropic of Capricorn (d) None of these

28. By which time the biggest State of India is larger than the smallest State of India (in area : approximately)

(a) 50 times (b) 75 times (c) 90 times (d) 120 times

29. By which times the population of biggest State of India is higher than that of the smallest State of India as per 1991 Census ?

(a) 100 times (b) 200 times (c) 300 times (d) More than 300 times

30. With which State the mountain peak ‘Mahendragiri’ is associated ?

(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Andhra Pradesh (c) Gujarat (d) None

31. Which State has highest percentage of area under forests ?

(a) Assam (b) Tripura (c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) None of these

32. Which one of the following States lost territory repeatedly ?

(a) Gujarat (b) Maharashtra (c) Assam (d) None of these

33. Which one of the following is the biggest supplier of minerals in value among the States of India ?

(a) Jharkhand (b) Bihar (c) Maharashtra (d) Madhya Pradesh.

34. Which one of following States has got no border with Goa ?

(a) Karnataka (b) Maharashtra (c) Gujarat (d) None of these

35. In which State Nal Sarovar Bird Sanctuary is located ?

(a) Maharashtra (b) Gujarat (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) None

36. In which State the place where great war of epic ‘Mahabharata’ happened in ancient period ?

(a) Punjab (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Gujarat (d) Haryana

37. Which State of India produces highest volume of Apples ?

(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Himachal Pradesh (c) Punjab (d) None

38. With which State the town named ’ Pahalgam’ is associated ?

(a) Punjab (b) Uttar Pradesh (c) Jammu & Kashmir (d) None

39. Which State has got a city known as ‘Garden city’ ?

(a) Karnataka (b) Gujarat (c) Tamil Nadu (d) None of these

40. Which State has got highest number of rivers ?

(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) West Bengal (c) Kerala (d) None

41. Which State of India has got largest number of SC/ST people ?

(a) Assam (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) None

42. Which one of the following is third largest both in population and area among the States of India ?

(a) Bihar (b) Maharashtra (c) Rajasthan (d) None of these

43. Which State was called ‘Jewel of India’ by PM Mr. J. L. Nehru ?

(a) Nagaland (b) Manipur (c) Kerala (d) None

44. The State receiving highest volume of rainfall in India is :

(a) Tripura (b) Arunachal Pradesh (c) Assam (d) Meghalaya

45. Lusai Hill District of British period is now known as :

(a) Mizoram (b) Manipur (c) Nagaland (d) None

46. Which one of the following States is inhabited by entirely tribal groups of people ? (Among the alternatives) :

(a) Orissa (b) Nagaland (c) Tripura (d) None of these

47. In which State Hirakud Dam is located ?

(a) Bihar (b) Uttar Pradesh (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Orissa

48. Which State of India has got highest percentage of total area of the State under cultivation ?

(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) West Bengal (c) Punjab (d) Tripura

49. In which modern State ‘Matsya Union’ was formed in 1948 ?

(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Rajastan (c) Gujarat (d) None

50. Which State has got border with three foreign countries

(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Sikkim (c) Rajasthan (d) None of these

51. In which State Third highest Mountain of world is located ?

(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Himachal Pradesh (c) Sikkim (d) None

52. In which State Guindy Deer Sanctuary is located ?

(a) Karnataka (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) None

53. Which one of the following States has got good availability of Natural gas ? (Among the alternatives) :

(a) Mizoram (b) Nagaland (c) West Bengal (d) Tripura

54. Uttar Pradesh is the biggest State in population but its position in respect of area is …….. among the States of India :

(a) 2nd (b) 3rd (c) 4th (d) 5th

55. What is the approximate number of people living in West Bengal on the basis of 1991 census ?

(a) 6 crore (b) 7 crore (c) 8 crore (d) 10 crore

56. Around how many islands are there in the Andaman and Nicobar group of islands :

(a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 300 (d) 400

57. In which State ‘Kanyakumari’ is located ?

(a) Kerala (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Karnataka (d) Andhra Pradesh

58. Which State is not associated with a Joint Capital ?

(a) Punjab (b) Haryana (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) None of these

59. Which one of the following States has got no border with the Union Territory named Nagar Haveli.

(a) Gujarat (b) Maharashtra (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) None of these

60. Daman and Diu are remaining in coastal areas adjacent to :

(a) Gujarat (b) Maharashtra (c) Karnataka (d) None of these.

61. The people of which one of the following region have got highest per capita income ? (On the basis of 1991 census)

(a) Pondicherry (b) Delhi (c) Punjab (d) Goa

62. Which region of India has got highest density of population ?

(a) Chandigarh (b) Pondicherry (c) West Bengal (d) Delhi

63. Arround how many persons live in the Union Territory of Lakshadweep ?

(a) 60 thousands (b) 1 lakh (c) 2 lakhs (d) 3 lakhs

64. The Union Territory of Pondicherry has four sites. These are Pondicherry, Karaikal, Yanam and Mahe. State which one of the following has not been correctly matched relating to location :

(a) Pondicherry : Tamil Nadu Coast (b) Yanam : Andhra Pradesh Coast

65. Which one of the following is not in Delhi ?

(a) Bahai Temple (b) Humayun’s Tomb (c) Surajkund (d) None

66. Which State has received highest benefits from Kosi project ?

(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Bihar (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) None

67. Tunga-Bhadra Project is in :

(a) North India (b) West India (c) South India (d) Eastern India

68. Rihand Project gives maximum benefits for :

(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Punjab (d) None

69. What percentage of total land area of India is under forest ?

(a) 15% (b) 20% (c) 25% (d) 30%

70. In which State the river Mahanadi has emerged ?

(a) Orissa (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) None

71. Winch State is not associated with the Cauvery Water dispute ?

(a) Karnataka (b)Tamil Nadu (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) None

72. In which State Central Rice Research Institute is located ?

(a) West Bengal (b) Andhra Pradesh (c) Orissa (d) Utter Pradesh

73. In which State Gandhisagar Dam has been constructed ?

(a) Rajasthan (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) None

74. On which river Nagarjunsagar Project has been constructed ?

(a) Cauvery (b) Krishna (c) Godavari (d) Ganga

75. In which State Mettur Dam has been constructed ?

(a) Karnataka (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Kerala (d) Andhra Pradesh

76. Around what percentage of National income or Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is obtained from Agricultural sector in India ?

(a) 20% (b) 30% (c) 40% (d) 50%

77. Around what percentage of total cultivated area is under rice cultivation in India ?

(a) 20% (b) 25% (c) 35% (d) 50%

78. How many hectares of land equal one sq. km . of land :

(a) 10 (b) 100 (c) 1000 (d) None of these

79. Around what percentage of total cultivated area of India is managed by irrigation ?

a) 30% (b) 40% (c) 50% (d) 60%

80. Which State of India is the biggest producer of Iron ore ?

(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Bihar (c) Orissa (d) Karnataka

81. Largest Bauxite producing State of India is :

(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Orissa (c) Bihar (d) None of these

82. The highest limestone producing State of India is :

(a) Rajasthan (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) None

83. The biggest Mica Producing State of India is :

(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Orissa (c) Bihar (d) Jharkhand

84. Which one of the following has got largest number of sugar Mills ?

(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Maharashtra (c) Bihar (d) None

85. A city of which State is called ‘The Manchester of India’ ?

(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Gujarat (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) None

86. A city of which State is known as ‘Benaras or Kasi of South’ ?

(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Karnataka (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) None

87. The 28th State of India is :

(a) Jharkhand (b) Chhattishgarh (c) Uttaranchal (d) None of these

88. Through taking how many districts of Bihar the new Jharkhand was created on 15th November, 2000 ?

(a) 16 (b) 18 (c) 20 (d) None of these

89. Through taking how many districts of Uttar Pradesh the 27th State of India, Uttaranchal was created on 9th November, 2000 ?

(a) 11 (b) 12 (c) 13 (d) 14

90. Which one has not been correctly matched :

(a) Everest : 8848 metre (b) Godwin Austin : 8611 metre

(c) Kanchengunga : 8356 metre (d) Nanga peak : 8126 metre

91. Around how many years ago the Himalayas emerged ?

(a) 1 crore (b) 3 crore (c) 5 crore (d) 7 crore

92. The connecting Mountain pass between Srinagar and Jammu is

(a) Peerpanjal (b) Banihal (c) Jojila (d) Burzila

93. The length of Dehra Dun valley of the Uttaianchal State is around

(a) 20 kms (b) 25 kms (c) 30 kms (d) 35 kms

94. Which is not associated with the Singalila mountain range ?

(a) Sandakafu (b) Falut (c) Kanchengunga (d) Annapurna

95. The other name of the Western Ghat mountains of India is :

(a) Sahadri (b) Malayadri (c) Sivaleek (d) None of these

96. Which one is not associated with the Western Ghat mountain range ?

(a) Sahadri (b) Malayadri (c) Mahendragiri (d) Harishchandra garh

97. The name of the highest mountain peak of the Nilgiris is :

(a) Doddabeta (b) Amarkantak (c) Dhupgarh (d) None of these

98. The soil of the Deccan trap originated from :

(a) Limestone (b) Basalt (c) Red lava (d) Granite

99. Srinagar of Kashmir is situated on the river :

(a) Satadru (b) Bipasa (c) Chandrabhaga (d) Bitasta

100. Alokananda has merged with Mandakini bear :

(a) Rudraprayag (b) Devprayag (c) Benaras (d) None of these

101. Which one is not situated on the river Ganges ?

(a) Kanpur (b) Mathura (c) Benaras (d) Bhagalpur

102. The Hundru waterfalls of Jharkahand State is on :

(a) Damodar (b) Subarnarekha (c) Sone (d) None of these

103. The area of the biggest river island ‘Majuli’ has got an area of around

(a) 1000 sq km (b) 1200 sq.km (c) 1400 sq.km (d) 600 sqkm.

104. Which one has originated from Amarkantak of Mahakal mountain

(a) Narmada (b) Tapti (c) Sabarmati (d) Mahanadi

105. ‘Andhra coastal zone’ is from Chilka lake area to the confluence of

(a) Krishna (b) Cauvery (c) Pulicot lake (d) Godavari

106. The length of the ‘Konkon’ coast is around :

(a) 450 kms (b) 490 kms (c) 530 kms (d) 620 kms

107. The length of the ‘Luni’ river is around :

(a) 350 kms (b) 400 kms (c) 450 kms (d) 500 kms

108. Which one of following is of lowest length ?

(a) Sabarmati (b) Brahamani (c) Baitaroni (d) Subarnarekha

109. The ‘Brahmaputra’ river is of around 2600 kms in length but it section in India around :

(a) 700 kms (b) 900 kms (c) 1100 kms (d) 1300 kms

110. Cauvery river has originated in the Brahmagiri mountain of :

(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Maharahstra (c) Karnataka (d) Chhattisgarh

111. ‘Sail water lake’ of which region is locally called as ‘Playa’ ?

(a) Gujarat (b) Orissa (c) Maharashtra (d) Rajasthan

112. Which one of the following cities is situated on Rainshadow region

(a) Gwahati (b) Agartala (c) Shillong (d) Shimla

113. Which one is the biggest river valley project of India ?

(a) Damudar (b) Tunga-Bhadra (c) Chambal (d) Kosi

114. India State having highest production of wheat is :

(a) Punjab (b) Haryana (c) Uttarpradesh (d) None of these

115. Highest rainfall is required for the production of :

(a) Rice (b) Wheat (c) Sugarcane (d) Tea

116. The Sugarcane breeding institute of India is located in :

(a) Chennai (b) Chandigarh (c) Lucknow (d) Ahmedabad

117. The Central Instituted of Cotton Research is located in :

(a) Kanpur (b) Ahmedabad (c) Nagpur (d) Madurai

118. National Research Centre for ground nut is located in :

(a) Gandhinagar (b) Junagarh (c) Kandla (d) None of these

119. Which one is not a by-product of coal obtained from coal mine

(a) Saccarine (b) Napthalene (c) Sulphur (d) Neptha

120. The biggest Thermal power station of West Bengal is at :

(a) Bandel (b) Kolaghat (c) Durgapur (d) Farakka

121. Birmitrapur having Dolomite mine is in :

(a) Jharkhand (b) Orissa (c) Madhya pradesh (d) Chhattisgarh

122. ‘Bailadila’ having iron ore and bauxite mines is in :

(a) Orissa (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Chattisgarh (d) Jharkhand

123. ‘Mysore Iron and Steel company limited’ is situated at :

(a) Bhadravati (b) Bangalore (c) Chitradurg (d) Hassan

124. ‘Bababudan’ hilly area is famous for the mines of :

(a) Manganese (b) Lime Stone (c) Iron ore (d) Tungsten

125. The Tata Iron & Steel Company of Jamsedpur in Jharkhand State is found to use water of river :

(a) Damodar (b) Subarnarekha (c) Ramgantak (d) Kosi

126. Rourkela Steel plant of Orissa is found to use the water of the river

(a) Mahanadi (b) Brahmani (c) Baitarani (d) None of these

127. The Villai Steel Plant of Chhattisgarh State is found to use water of :

(a) Damodar (b) Mayurakshi (c) Gantak (d) Noiie of these

128. Which one is not associated with the State of Chhattisgarh :

(a) Bastar (b) Durg (c) Mayurbhanj (d) Korba

129. The Mining and Allied Machinery Corporation is located at :

(a) Durgapur (b) Ranchi (c) Dhanbad (d) Bhopal

130. Premier Automobiles Limited Company is located in :

(a) Maharashtra (b) Haryana (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Karnataka

131. The biggest Ship and Submarine making plant is associated with :

(a) West Bengal (b) Maharasthra (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Goa

132. An industrial centre known as ‘Manchester of India’ is located

(a) Maharashtra (b) Gujrat (c) Tamil Nadu (d) None of these

133. The most important Textile centre in South India is :

(a) Madurai (b) Salem (c) Coimbatore (d) None of these

134. The Slate of Uttaranchal has got no border with :

(a) Nepal (b) China (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Haryana

135. The Himalayan group of mountains are examples of :

(a) Fold mountains (b) Block mountains (c) Volcanic mountains (d) None of these

136. In 1960 the State of Gujrat was created through dividing :

(a) Maharashtra (b) Bombay (c) Marathawada (d) None of these

137. New emerging islands in the Bay of Bengal at the Southern Bengal have been given the name ‘New Moor’ islands and these also called as :

(a) Sundarban islands (b) Purbasha (c) Gangotri (d) None of these

138. What is the approximate length of the coastal lines of India in total :

(a) 3000 kms (b) 4000 kms (c) 5000 kms (d) 6000 kms

139. Smallest Union Territory of India in area is :

(a) Chandigarh (b) Daman & Diu (c) Lakshadeep (d) None

140. ‘Tribhuban Road’ towards Kathmandu has started from which site of Bihar :

(a) Patna (b) Rouxal (c) Birganj (d) None of these

141. Ladakh plateau, the highest plateau of India has got average height of around :

(a) 3 kms (b) 4 kms (c) 5 kms (d) 6 kms

142. Which one river has not originated from the Bhutan Himalaya

(a) Teesta (b) Raidak (c) Sankosh (d) Manas

143. ‘Siachen glacier’ the biggest glacier of India, has got a length of around :

(a) 60 kms (b) 70 kms (c) 80 kms (d) 90 kms

144. ‘Gurusikhar’ having height of 1722 metre is the highest peak of the :

(a) Nilgiris (b) Aravallis (c) Vindhays (d) Satpuras

145. On the basis of 2001 census West Bengal is within :

(a) Very high Density Region (b) High Density Region

146. A region having very high density region must have per sq.km. population density of more than :

(a) 500 persons (b) 750 persons (c) 1000 persons (d) 2000 persons

147. Which State is within Medium Density region having population density between 251 and 500 persons per sq. km. in 2001 census ?

(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Orissa (c) Rajasthan (d) Bihar

148. ‘Siliguri’ of West Bengal is having highly expanding population mainly for :

(a) Immigration (b) Land Communication (c) Industries (d) Government policies

149. How many urban centres are there in India on the basis of 2001 census report :

(a) 3 thousand (b) 4 thousand (c) 5 thousand (d) 6 thousand

150. The fifth largest city in population on the basis of 2001 census of India is :

(a) Bangalore (b) Hyderabad (c) Ahmedabad (d) Surat

151. The biggest city of Uttar Paradesh in population is :

(a) Lucknow (b) Kanpur (c) Agra (d) Beneras

152. City ol Oranges’ of India is :

(a) Darjeeling (b) Srinagar (c) Nagpur (d) None of these

153. International seaport having biggest hinterland area is in :

(a) Maharashtra (b) Andhra Pradesh (c) Gujarat (d) West Bengal

154. The First paper mill of India was set up in 1830 AD in :

(a) Surat (b) Srirampore (c) Madras (d) None of these

155. The most important bauxite collecting region of India is :

(a) Korba (b) Bailadila (c) Palamou (d) Chaibasa

156. Which one has not been correctly matched ?

(a) Cement : Sindri (b) Explosive : Gomia (c) Aluminium : Ghatsila (d) Steel : Jamsedpur

157. Which one has been correctly matched :

(a) Gangpur : Lime stone (b) Mayurbhanj : Copper (c) Lohardaga : Iron (d) None of these

158. With which river the Massanjor embankment is associated ?

(a) Damodar (b) Subarnarekha (c) Mayurakshi (d) None of these

159. in which State sugarcane production is highest per acre of land :

(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Punjab (c) Haryana (d) Tamil Nadu

160. Which one is not the name iron ore mine area :

(a) Dallirajhara of Chhattisgarh (b) Kemangundi of Karnataka

161. The biggest Iron and Steel production Factory of India is :

(a) Bhilai of Chhattisgarh (b) Jamsedpur of jharkhand

162. Out of total 7 Union Territories of India which one is biggest in area :

(a) Delhi (b) Andamans (c) Dadra (d) Pondicherry

163. Indian State having second lowest density of population is

(a) Sikkim (b) Jammu & Kashmir (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Nagaland

164. Length lake in the desert area of Rajasthan is popularly knowi as:

(a) Dun (b) Tal (c) Rann (d) Dhand

165. The second important source of power or electricity in India is :

(a) Thermal power (b) Hydro power (c) Nuclear power (d) None

166. Of total land area of India the percentage of Alluvial plain area is around :

(a) 20% (b) 30% (c) 40% (d) 50%

167. The Middle Ganga plain area has started from :

(a) Lucknow (b) Allahabad (c) Benaras (d) Patna

168. Dhupgarh, the highest peak of the Satpura mountain range has height of :

(a) 1150 mtr (b) 1250 mtr (c) 1350 mtr (d) 1450 mtr

169. The highest mountain peak of the South Indian region is :

(a) Dodobetta (b) Anaimudi (c) Kalsubai (d) None of these

170. Ten degree Channel lies between :

(a) Great Andamans and Little Andamans (b) Andamans and Nicobars

171. Vora ghat waterfalls near Jabalpur is on river :

(a) Tapti (b) Cauvery (c) Narmada (d) None of these

172. Which irrigation project has not been correctly matched ?

(a) Malprava : Karnataka (b) Ukai : Gujrat (c) kakrapara : Orissa (d) Kansabati : West Bengal

173. Rana Pratap Sagar project is associated with river :

(a) Rihand (b) Chambal (c) Tungabhadra (d) None of these

174. ‘Matunga’ having automobile factory is in :

(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Haryana (c) Maharashtra (d) None of these

175. The length of coastal line of the Peninsular India is around :

(a) 6OOO kms (b) 6500 kms (c) 7500 kms (d) 8500 kms

176. Around what percent of total land area of India is in West Bengal ?

(a) 2.3% (b) 2.6% (c) 3.2% (d) 3.7%

177. What was the approximate population of West Bengal in 1991 census :

(a) 6.8 crore (b) 7.1 crore (c) 7.3 crore (d) None of these

178. The land area of West Bengal, in respect of latitude is spread over around :

(a) 5° (b) 6° (c) 7° (d) 8°

179. The land surface of West Bengal has got downward slope towards :

(a) South (b) East (c) South-East (d) None of these

180. Among the district of West Bengal, Kolkata district has got highest population. Which district has got lowest population ?

(a) Darjeeling (b) Bankura (c) Purulia (d) None of these

181. Around what percent of total land area of West Bengal is under forest

(a) 10% (b) 12% (c) 14% (d) 16%

182. Which lype of animals are not found in the forest areas of West Bengal

(a) Tiger (b) One horned rhino (c) Crocodile (d) Lion

183. With which foreign country West Bengal has got no border ?

(a) China (b) Bhutan (c) Nepal (d) Bangladesh

184. With which National Highway West Bengal has got road connection with Sikkim :

(a) NH 31 (b) NH 32 (c) NH 34 (d) None of these

185. Around what percent of total area of West Bengal is mountain region ?

(a) 1% (b) 3% (c) 5% (d) 8%

186. Around what percent of total area of West Bengal is considered as Hilly region ?

(a) 5% (b) 7% (c) 10% (d) 15%

187. The Singalila mountain range is situated with the border between West Bengal and :

(a) Sikkim (b) Nepal (c) Assam (d) Bhutan Ans :

188. The height of ‘Tiger Hill’ lying between Darjeeling and Kuerseong district is :

(a) 2615 metre (b) 1885 metre (c) 1726 metre (d) None of these

189. ‘Mahananda’ plain area is not associated with :

(a) Maldah (b) North Dinajpur (c) South Dinajpur (d) Murshidabad

190. The ‘Buxa’ mountain pass is associated mainly with the district of :

(a) Darjeeling (b) Jalpaiguri (c) Coochbehar (d) None

191. ‘Barind’ or ‘Barendra Bhumi’ is mainly associated with the distrlct of :

(a) Murshidabad (b) Coochbehar (c) Maldaha (d) None

192. Which river flowing though West Bengal is not snow-fed ?

(a) Mahananda (b) Torsa (c) Jaldhaka (d) Kalindi

193. Which river flowing in West Bengal is not rain-fed ?

(a) Damodar (b) Kansabati (c) Mayurakshi (d) Teesta

194. Which one has originated from the ‘Paglajhora’ waterfalls of Kuerseang ?

(a) Jaldhaka (b) Mahananda (c) Sankosh (d) None

195. Which one is popularly known as the ‘river of terror’ ?

(a) Teesta (b) Torsa (c) Damodar (d) None of these

196. The combined flow of Dwarakeshwar and Silabati rivers is known as :

(a) Haldi (b) Rupnarayan (c) Jalangi (d) None of these

197. Which one has originated in an area of West Bengal ?

(a) Kansabati (b) Mayurakshi (c) Darakeshwar (d) Ajay

198. ‘Buxaduar’ the place of highest rainfall in West Bengal is in the district of :

(a) Darjeeling (b) Jalpaiguri (c) coochbehar (d) None

199. The highest Railway station of the world ‘Ghoom’ is at a height of :

(a) 2134 metre (b) 2347 metre (c) 3149 metre (d) None

200. Which one has not been correctly matched ?

(a) Toy Train of Darjeeling has been given Heritage Railway Station by UNESCO.

(b) Mangpu of Kalimpong subdivision is famous for Chincona cultivation.

(c) Lyed Botanical Garden is situated in the Kurseong subdivision.

(d) Himalya Mountaineering Institute is located in the Darjeeling town

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Book-page

WBCS

MCQ on Geography of India with special reference to West Bengal for WBCS/SSC/Misc Competitive Exam

Geography